UNSEEN PASSAGES PRACTICE (WITH SOLUTIONS)
Passage 1:
Caffeine, the
stimulant in coffee, has been called “the most widely used psychoactive
substance on Earth.”Synder, Daly and Bruns have recently proposed that caffeine
affects behavior by countering the activity in the human brain of a naturally
occurring chemical called adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing
in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by inhibiting the release
of neurotransmitters, chemicals that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to
the next. Like many other agents that affect neuron firing, adenosine must
first bind to specific receptors on neuronal membranes. There are at least two
classes of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and A2.
Snyder et al
propose that caffeine, which is structurally similar to adenosine, is able to
bind to both types of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching there
and allows the neurons to fire more readily than they otherwise would.
For many years,
caffeine’s effects have been attributed to its inhibition of the production of
phosphodiesterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical called cyclic AMP. A
number of neurotransmitters exert their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP
concentrations in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at the elevated
concentrations, as might be brought about by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor,
could lead to a greater amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to
behavioral stimulation. But Snyder et al point out that the caffeine
concentrations needed to inhibit the production of phosphodiesterase in the
brain are much higher than those that produce stimulation. Moreover, other
compounds that block phosphodiesterase’s activity are not stimulants.
To buttress their
case that caffeine acts instead by preventing adenosine binding, Snyder et al
compared the stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with their
ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in the brains of mice. “In
general,” they reported, “the ability of the compounds to compete at the
receptors correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in the mouse;
i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the receptors, the higher their
ability to stimulate locomotion.” Theophylline, a close structural relative of
caffeine and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most effective
compounds in both regards. There were some apparent exceptions to the general
correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding and stimulation.One of
these was a compound called 3-isobuty1-1-methylxanthine(IBMX), which bound very
well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder et al suggest that this is
not a major stumbling block to their hypothesis. The problem is that the
compound has mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with
psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally known only for its
stimulatory effects, displays this property, depressing mouse locomotion at
very low concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.
Based on the Passage, answer the following
questions:
1. The primary purpose of the
passage is to
(A) discuss a plan for investigation of
a phenomenon that is not yet fully understood
(B) present two explanations of a
phenomenon and reconcile the differences between them
(C) summarize two theories and suggest
a third theory that overcomes the problems encountered in the first two
(D) describe an alternative hypothesis
and provide evidence and arguments that support it
(E) challenge the validity of a theory
by exposing the inconsistencies and contradictions in it
2. According so Snyder et al,
caffeine differs from adenosine in that caffeine
(A) stimulates behavior in the mouse
and in humans, whereas adenosine stimulates behavior in humans only
(B) has mixed effects in the brain,
whereas adenosine has only a stimulatory effect
(C) increases cyclic AMP concentrations
in target neurons, whereas adenosine decreases such concentrations
(D) permits release of
neurotransmitters when it is bound to adenosine receptors, whereas adenosine
inhibits such release
(E) inhibits both neuron firing and the
production of phosphodiesterase when there is a sufficient concentration in the
brain, whereas adenosine inhibits only neuron firing
3. In response to experimental
results concerning IBMX, Snyder et al contended that it is not uncommon for
psychoactive drugs to have
(A) mixed effects in the brain
(B) inhibitory effects on enzymes in
the brain
(C) close structural relationships with
caffeine
(D) depressive effects on mouse
locomotion
(E) the ability to dislodge caffeine
from receptors in the brain
4. According to Snyder et al, all
of the following compounds can bind to specific receptors in the brain EXCEPT
(A) IBMX
(B) caffeine
(C) adenosine
(D) theophylline
(E) phosphodiesterase
5. Snyder et al suggest that
caffeine’s ability to bind to A1 and A2 receptors can be at least partially
attributed to which of the following?
(A) The chemical relationship between
caffeine and phosphodiesterase
(B) The structural relationship between
caffeine and adenosine
(C) The structural similarity between
caffeine and neurotransmitters
(D) The ability of caffeine to
stimulate behavior
(E) The natural occurrence of caffeine
and adenosine in the brain
Passage 2:
Archaeology as a
profession faces two major problems.
First, it is
the poorest of the poor. Only paltry sums are available for excavating and even
less is available for publishing the results and preserving the sites once
excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless objects every day.
Second, there is
the problem of illegal excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being
sold to the highest bidder.
I would like to
make an outrageous suggestion that would at one stroke provide funds for
archaeology and reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose that
scientific archeological expeditions and governmental authorities sell
excavated artifacts on the open market. Such sales would provide substantial
funds for the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites and the
publication of results. At the same time, they would break the illegal
excavator’s grip on the market, thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in
illegal activities.
You might object
that professionals excavate to acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient
artifacts are part of our global cultural heritage, which should be available
for all to appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing
that has unique artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply,
everything that comes out of the ground has scientific value. Here we part
company. Theoretically, you may be correct in claiming that every artifact has
potential scientific value. Practically, you are wrong.
I refer to the
thousands of pottery vessels and ancient lamps that are essentially duplicates
of one another. In one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently
uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in a single courtyard,
even precious royal seal impressions known as melekh handles have been found in
abundance — more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basement of
museums is simply not large enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be
discovered in the future. There is not enough money even to catalogue the
finds; as a result, they cannot be found again and become as inaccessible as if
they had never been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer, sold
artifacts could be more accessible than are the pieces stored in bulging museum
basements. Prior to sale, each could be photographed and the list of the
purchasers could be maintained on the computer A purchaser could even be
required to agree to return the piece if it should become needed for scientific
purposes. It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging would stop if
artifacts were sold in the open market. But the demand for the clandestine
product would be substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked pot when
another was available whose provenance was known, and that was dated
stratigraphically by the professional archaeologist who excavated it?
Based on the Passage, answer the following
questions:
6. The primary purpose of the
passage is to propose
(A) an alternative to museum display of
artifacts
(B) a way to curb illegal digging while
benefiting the archaeological profession
(C) a way to distinguish artifacts with
the scientific value from those that have no such value
(D) the governmental regulation of
archaeological sites
(E) a new system for cataloging
duplicate artifacts
7. The author implies that all of
the following statements about duplicate artifacts are true EXCEPT:
(A) A market for such artifacts already
exists.
(B) Such artifacts seldom have
scientific value.
(C) There is likely to be a continuing
supply of such artifacts.
(D) Museums are well supplied with
examples of such artifacts.
(E) Such artifacts frequently exceed in
quality in comparison to those already cataloged in museum collections
8. Which of the following is
mentioned in the passage as a disadvantage of storing artifacts in museum
basements?
(A) Museum officials rarely allow
scholars access to such artifacts.
(B) Space that could be better used for
display is taken up for storage.
(C) Artifacts discovered in one
excavation often become separated from each other.
(D) Such artifacts are often damaged by
variations in temperature and humidity.
(E) Such artifacts’ often remain
uncatalogued and thus cannot be located once they are put in storage
9. The author’s argument
concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal
excavation is based on which of the following assumptions? (A) Prospective
purchasers would prefer to buy authenticated artifacts.
(B) The price of illegally excavated
artifacts would rise.
(C) Computers could be used to trace
sold artifacts.
(D) Illegal excavators would be forced
to sell only duplicate artifacts.
(E) Money gained from selling
authenticated artifacts could be used to investigate and prosecute illegal
excavators
10. The author anticipates which
of the following initial objections to the adoption of his proposal?
(A) Museum officials will become
unwilling to store artifacts.
(B) An oversupply of salable artifacts
will result and the demand for them will fall.
(C) Artifacts that would have been
displayed in public places will be sold to private collectors.
(D) Illegal excavators will have an
even larger supply of artifacts for resale.
(E) Counterfeiting of artifacts will
become more commonplace
Passage 3:
Federal efforts to
aid minority businesses began in the 1960’s when the Small Business
Administration (SBA) began making federally guaranteed loans and
government-sponsored management and technical assistance available to minority
business enterprises. While this program enabled many minority entrepreneurs to
form new businesses, the results were disappointing, since managerial
inexperience, unfavorable locations, and capital shortages led to high failure
rates. Even 15 years after the program was implemented, minority business
receipts were not quite two percent of the national economy’s total receipts.
Recently federal policymakers have adopted an approach intended to accelerate
development of the minority business sector by moving away from directly aiding
small minority enterprises and toward supporting larger, growth-oriented
minority firms through intermediary companies. In this approach, large
corporations participate in the development of successful and stable minority
businesses by making use of government-sponsored venture capital. The capital
is used by a participating company to establish a Minority Enterprise Small
Business Investment Company or MESBIC. The MESBIC then provides capital and
guidance to minority businesses that have potential to become future suppliers
or customers of the sponsoring company.
MESBIC’s are the
result of the belief that providing established firms with easier access to
relevant management techniques and more job-specific experience, as well as
substantial amounts of capital, gives those firms a greater opportunity to
develop sound business foundations than does simply making general management
experience and small amounts of capital available. Further, since potential
markets for the minority businesses already exist through the sponsoring
companies, the minority businesses face considerably less risk in terms of
location and market fluctuation. Following early financial and operating
problems, sponsoring corporations began to capitalize MESBIC’s far above the
legal minimum of $500,000 in order to generate sufficient income and to sustain
the quality of management needed. MESBIC’s are now emerging as increasingly
important financing sources for minority enterprises.
Ironically, MESBIC
staffs, which usually consist of Hispanic and Black professionals, tend to
approach investments in minority firms more pragmatically than do many MESBIC
directors, who are usually senior managers from sponsoring corporations. The
latter often still think mainly in terms of the “social responsibility
approach” and thus seem to prefer deals that are riskier and less attractive
than normal investment criteria would warrant. Such differences in viewpoint
have produced uneasiness among many minority staff members, who feel that
minority entrepreneurs and businesses should be judged by established business
considerations. These staff members believe their point of view is closer to
the original philosophy of MESBIC’s and they are concerned that, unless a more
prudent course is followed, MESBIC directors may revert to policies likely to
re-create the disappointing results of the original SBA approach.
Based on the Passage, answer the following
questions:
11. Which of the following best
states the central idea of the passage?
(A) The use of MESBIC’s for aiding
minority entrepreneurs seems to have greater potential for success than does
the original SBA approach.
(B) There is a crucial difference in
point of view between the staff and directors of some MESBIC’s.
(C) After initial problems with management
and marketing, minority businesses have begun to expand at a steady rate.
(D) Minority entrepreneurs wishing to
form new businesses now have several equally successful federal programs on
which to rely.
(E) For the first time since 1960,
large corporations are making significant contributions to the development of
minority businesses
12. According to the passage, the
MESBIC approach differs from the SBA approach in that MESBIC’s
(A) seek federal contracts to provide
markets for minority businesses
(B) encourage minority businesses to
provide markets for other minority businesses
(C) attempt to maintain a specified
rate of growth in the minority business sector
(D) rely on the participation of large
corporations to finance minority businesses
(E) select minority businesses on the
basis of their location
13. Which of the following does
the author cite to support the conclusion that the results of the SBA program
were disappointing?
(A) The small number of new minority
enterprises formed as a result of the program
(B) The small number of minority
enterprises that took advantage of the management and technical assistance
offered under the program
(C) The small percentage of the
nation’s business receipts earned by minority enterprises following the
programs, implementation.
(D) The small percentage of recipient
minority enterprises that were able to repay federally guaranteed loans made
under the program
(E) The small number of minority
enterprises that chose to participate in the program
14. Which of the following
statements about the SBA program can be inferred from the passage?
(A) The maximum term for loans made to
recipient businesses was 15 years.
(B) Business loans were considered to
be more useful to recipient businesses than was management and technical
assistance.
(C) The anticipated failure rate for
recipient businesses was significantly lower than the rate that actually
resulted.
(D) Recipient businesses were
encouraged to relocate to areas more favorable for business development.
(E) The capitalization needs of
recipient businesses were assessed and then provided for adequately
15. The author’s primary objective
in the passage is to
(A) disprove the view that federal
efforts to aid minority businesses have been ineffective
(B) explain how federal efforts to aid
minority businesses have changed since the 1960’s
(C) establish a direct link between the
federal efforts to aid minority businesses made before the 1960’s and those
made in the 1980’s
(D) analyze the basis for the belief
that job-specific experience is more useful to minority businesses than is
general management experience
(E) argue that the “social
responsibility approach” to aiding minority businesses is superior to any other
approach
Solutions
1. D is the best answer. This question requires one to identify
the primary concern of the passage as a whole. In the first paragraph, a recent
hypothesis about the effects of caffeine on behavior was presented. The second
paragraph describes an earlier and widely accepted hypothesis about how caffeine
affects behavior and then presents evidence that is not consistent with that
hypothesis. The third and fourth paragraphs return to the newer hypothesis
introduced in the first paragraph and provide “evidence and arguments” that
support this alternative hypothesis.
2. D is the best answer. The passage states that
adenosine “depresses neuron firing” by binding to specific receptors on neuronal membranes,
which in turn inhibits the release of neurotransmitters. The passage describes
Snyder et al’s hypothesis about caffeine. They propose that caffeine binds to
specific receptors on neuronal membranes, which prevents adenosine from binding
to those receptors and “allows
the neurons to fire more readily than they otherwise would”. Therefore, according to Snyder et al, caffeine differs from
adenosine in that caffeine permits neurotransmitter release when it is bound to
adenosine receptors, whereas adenosine inhibits neruotransmitter release.
3. A is the best answer. The effects of IBMX are discussed in
the last paragraph of the passage. IBMX apparently binds to adenosine-specific
receptors on neuronal membranes, but, in contrast to the other caffeine
derivatives that Snyder et al experimented with, IBMX depresses rather than
stimulates mouse locomotion. Snyder et al respond to this experimental result
by stating that IBMX has “mixed
effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with psychoactive drugs”.
4. E is the best answer. This question asks you to identify
which compound, according to Snyder et al, does NOT bind to specific receptors
in the brain. Phosphodiesterase, identified as an “enzyme that breaks down the chemical called cyclic AMP” is the only compound that is not identified as one that
binds to specific receptors in the brain.
5. B is the best answer. This question asks you to identify
information that is suggested rather than directly stated in the passage. To
answer it, first look for the location in the passage of the information
specified in the question. The A1 and A2 receptors are mentioned in the passage
& it goes on to describe Snyder et al’s hypothesis about the effects of
caffeine on behavior. They propose that caffeine, “which is structurally similar to adenosine,” is able to bind to A1 and A2 receptors in the brain, the
same receptors that adenosine normally binds to. Thus, the passage suggests
that the structural relationship between caffeine and adenosine may be
partially responsible for caffeine’s ability to bind to A1 and A2 receptors.
6. B is the best answer. The first paragraph identifies two
major problems faced by the archaeological profession: inadequate funding and
illegal digging. The passage indicates that the author is going to suggest how
to remedy both problems, thereby benefiting the archaeological profession. The
author proceeds to propose allowing the sale of excavated artifacts and to
explain how this would solve both problems . The author then supports the
proposal by countering possible objections to it, and in the last paragraph
explains how the proposal would curb illegal digging.Thus, the way information
is organized in the passage indicates that the author’s purpose is to suggest
that allowing the sale of excavated artifacts would provide funds for the
archaeological profession and curb illegal digging.
7. E is the best answer. The question requires you to identify
the answer choice that CANNOT be inferred from the passage. Nothing in the
passage implies that duplicate artifacts exceed museum objects in quality.
8. E is the best answer. The disadvantages of storing artifacts
in museum basements are discussed in the fifth paragraph. The passage states
that “There is not enough money…to
catalogue the finds” and declare that, as a
result stored objects cannot be located.
9. A is the best answer. The author’s argument concerning the
effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excavation
appears in the passage where the author predicts that such official sale would
reduce the demand for “the clandestine
product.” The rhetorical question
that follows indicates that the author finds it unlikely that any purchaser
would prefer objects of unknown provenance to objects of known origin, or, to
rephrase, the author assumes that most people would prefer to purchase objects
of authenticated provenance, as this choice states.
10. C is the best answer. The author begins the third paragraph
by saying “you might object…” in order to anticipate possible objections to the adoption
of his proposal. In the next sentence the author asserts that “ancient artifacts…should be available for all to appreciate, not
sold to the highest bidder”,
acknowledging an opponent’s fear that individuals might be allowed to purchase
objects that ought to be displayed in public institutions. This objection is
paraphrased in this choice.
11. A is the best answer. The passage begins by indicating that
the results of the SBA approach to aiding minority entrepreneurs “were disappointing” .
The passage states that “MESBIC’s
are now emerging as increasingly important financing sources for minority
enterprises.” Much of the passage is
devoted to supporting the author’s view that MESBIC’xhave the greater potential
for success, and the last sentence in the passage confirms this view.
12. D is the best answer. In the second paragraph, the author
describes the MESBIC approach as one in which “large corporations participate in the development of successful
and stable minority businesses by making use of government-sponsored venture
capital”. There is no indication in the
passage that the SBA approach relies on the participation of large
corporations.
13. C is the best answer. The author concludes that the results
of the SBA approach “were
disappointing”. Then he supports the
conclusion by citing the fact that “Even
15 years after the program was implemented, minority business receipts were not
quite two percent of the national economy’s total receipts”.
14. C is the best answer. This question asks you to draw an
inference about the SBA program. Although the passage does not actually state
that the failure rate for SBA recipient businesses was higher than anticipated,
in the first paragraph the author does state that the results of the SBA
program were disappointing, in part because of the high failure rate among
SBA-sponsored businesses. From this it can be inferred that the anticipated
failure rate was lower than the actual rate.
15. B is the best answer. The passage describes efforts
undertaken in the 1960’s to and minority businesses and then describes MESBIC’s
, a newer approach to such efforts.
Next Set
Passage
1:
The majority of successful
senior managers do not closely follow the classical rational model of first
clarifying goals, assessing the problem, formulating options, estimating
likelihoods of success, making a decision, and only then taking action to implement
the decision. Rather, in their day-by-day tactical maneuvers, these senior
executives rely on what is vaguely termed “intuition” to manage a network of
interrelated problems that require them to deal with ambiguity, inconsistency,
novelty, and surprise; and to integrate action into the process to thinking.
Generations of writers on
management have recognized that some practicing managers rely heavily on
intuition. In general, however, such writers display a poor grasp of what
intuition is. Some see it as the opposite of rationality; others view it as an
excuse for capriciousness.
Isenberg’s recent research on
the cognitive processes of senior managers reveals that managers’ intuition is
neither of these. Rather, senior managers use intuition in at least five
distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense when a problem exists. Second,
managers rely on intuition to perform well-learned behavior patterns rapidly.
This intuition is not arbitrary or irrational, but is based on years of
painstaking practice and hands-on experience that build skills. A third
function of intuition is to synthesize isolated bits of data and practice into
an integrated picture, often in an “Aha!” experience. Fourth, some managers use
intuition as a check on the results of more rational analysis. Most senior
executives are familiar with the formal decision analysis models and tools, and
those who use such systematic methods for reaching decisions are occasionally
leery of solutions suggested by these methods which run counter to their sense
of the correct course of action. Finally, managers can use intuition to bypass
in-depth analysis and move rapidly to engender a plausible solution. Used in
this way, intuition is an almost instantaneous cognitive process in which a
manager recognizes familiar patterns.
One of the implications of the
intuitive style of executive management is that “thinking” is inseparable from
acting. Since managers often “know” what is right before they can analyze and
explain it, they frequently act first and explain later. Analysis is
inextricably tied to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers
develop thoughts about their companies and organizations not by analyzing a
problematic situation and then acting, but by acting and analyzing in close
concert.
Given the great uncertainty of
many of the management issues that they face, senior managers often instigate a
course of action simply to learn more about an issue. They then use the results
of the action to develop a more complete understanding of the issue. One
implication of thinking/acting cycles is that action is often part of defining
the problem, not just of implementing the solution.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
1. According to the
passage, senior managers use intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT to
(A) speed up of the creation of a solution to
a problem
(B) identify a problem
(C) bring together disparate facts
(D) stipulate clear goals
(E) evaluate possible solutions to a problem
2. The passage suggests which of
the following about the “writers on management” mentioned in paragraph 2?
(A) They have criticized managers for not
following the classical rational model of decision analysis.
(B) They have not based their analyses on a
sufficiently large sample of actual managers.
(C) They have relied in drawing their
conclusions on what managers say rather than on what managers do.
(D) They have misunderstood how managers use
intuition in making business decisions.
(E) They have not acknowledged the role of
intuition in managerial practice
3. According to the passage, the
classical model of decision analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT
(A) evaluation of a problem
(B) creation of possible solutions to a
problem
(C) establishment of clear goals to be reached
by the decision
(D) action undertaken in order to discover
more information about a problem
(E) comparison of the probable effects of
different solutions to a problem
4. It can be inferred from the
passage that which of the following would most probably be one major difference
in behavior between Manager X, who uses intuition to reach decisions, and
Manager Y, who uses only formal decision analysis?
(A) Manager X analyzes first and then acts;
Manager Y does not.
(B) Manager X checks possible solutions to a
problem by systematic analysis; Manager Y does not
(C) Manager X takes action in order to arrive
at the solution to a problem; Manager Y does not.
(D) Manager Y draws on years of hands-on
experience in creating a solution to a problem; Manager X does not.
(E) Manger Y depends on day-to-day tactical
maneuvering; manager X does not
5. The passage provides support
for which of the following statements?
(A) Managers who rely on intuition are more
successful than those who rely on formal decision analysis.
(B) Managers cannot justify their intuitive
decisions.
(C) Managers’ intuition works contrary to
their rational and analytical skills
(D) Logical analysis of a problem increases
the number of possible solutions.
(E) Intuition enables managers to employ their
practical experience more efficiently.
Passage
2:
Nearly a century ago, biologists
found that if they separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts at an
early stage of its life, it would survive and develop as two normal embryos.
This led them to believe that the cells in the early embryo are undetermined in
the sense that each cell has the potential to develop in a variety of different
ways. Later biologists found that the situation was not so simple. It matters
in which plane the embryo is cut. If it is cut in a plane different from the
one used by the early investigators, it will not form two whole embryos.
A debate arose over what
exactly was happening. Which embryo cells are determined, just when do they
become irreversibly committed to their fates, and what are the “morphogenetic
determinants” that tell a cell what to become? But the debate could not be
resolved because no one was able to ask the crucial questions in a form in
which they could be pursued productively. Recent discoveries in molecular
biology, however, have opened up prospects for a resolution of the debate. Now
investigators think they know at least some of the molecules that act as
morphogenetic determinants in early development. They have been able to show
that, in a sense, cell determination begins even before an egg is fertilized.
Studying sea urchins, biologist
Paul Gross found that an unfertilized egg contains substances that function as
morphogenetic determinants. They are located in the cytoplasm of the egg cell;
i.e., in that part of the cell’s protoplasm that lies outside of the nucleus.
In the unfertilized egg, the substances are inactive and are not distributed
homogeneously. When the egg is fertilized, the substances become active and,
presumably, govern the behavior of the genes they interact with. Since the
substances are unevenly distributed in the egg, when the fertilized egg
divides, the resulting cells are different from the start and so can be
qualitatively different in their own gene activity.
The substances that Gross
studied are maternal messenger RNA’s –products of certain of the maternal
genes. He and other biologists studying a wide variety of organisms have found
that these particular RNA’s direct, in large part, the synthesis of histones, a
class of proteins that bind to DNA. Once synthesized, the histones move into
the cell nucleus, where sections of DNA wrap around them to form a structure
that resembles beads, or knots, on a string. The beads are DNA segments wrapped
around the histones; the string is the intervening DNA. And it is the structure
of these beaded DNA strings that guides the fate of the cells in which they are
located.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
6. It can be inferred from the
passage that the morphogenetic determinants present in the early embryo are
(A) located in the nucleus of the embryo cells
(B) evenly distributed unless the embryo is
not developing normally
(C) inactive until the embryo cells become
irreversibly committed to their final function
(D) identical to those that were already
present in the unfertilized egg
(E) present in larger quantities than is
necessary for the development of a single individual
7. The main topic of the passage
is
(A) the early development of embryos of lower
marine organisms
(B) the main contribution of modern embryology
to molecular biology
(C) the role of molecular biology in
disproving older theories of embryonic development
(D) cell determination as an issue in the
study of embryonic development
(E) scientific dogma as a factor in the recent
debate over the value of molecular biology
8. According to the passage, when
biologists believed that the cells in the early embryo were undetermined, they
made which of the following mistakes?
(A) They did not attempt to replicate the
original experiment of separating an embryo into two parts.
(B) They did not realize that there was a
connection between the issue of cell determination and the outcome of the
separation experiment.
(C) They assumed that the results of
experiments on embryos did not depend on the particular animal species used for
such experiments.
(D) They assumed that it was crucial to
perform the separation experiment at an early stage in the embryo’s life.
(E) They assumed that different ways of
separating an embryo into two parts would be equivalent as far as the fate of
the two parts was concerned
9. It can be inferred from the
passage that the initial production of histones after an egg is fertilized
takes place
(A) in the cytoplasm
(B) in the maternal genes
(C) throughout the protoplasm
(D) in the beaded portions of the DNA strings
(E) in certain sections of the cell nucleus
10. It can be inferred
from the passage that which of the following is dependent on the fertilization
of an egg?
(A) Copying of maternal genes to produce
maternal messenger RNA’s
(B) Sythesis of proteins called histones
(C) Division of a cell into its nucleus and
the cytoplasm
(D) Determination of the egg cell’s potential
for division
(E) Generation of all of a cell’s
morphogenetic determinants
11. According to the passage, the
morphogenetic determinants present in the unfertilized egg cell are which of
the following?
(A) Proteins bound to the nucleus
(B) Histones
(C) Maternal messenger RNA’s
(D) Cytoplasm
(E) Nonbeaded intervening DNA
Passage
3:
In the two decades between 1910
and 1930, over ten percent of the Black population of the United States left
the South, where the preponderance of the Black population had been located,
and migrated to northern states, with the largest number moving, it is claimed,
between 1916 and 1918. It has been frequently assumed, but not proved, that the
majority of the migrants in what has come to be called the Great Migration came
from rural areas and were motivated by two concurrent factors: the collapse of
the cotton industry following the boll weevil infestation, which began in 1898,
and increased demand in the North for labor following the cessation of European
immigration caused by the outbreak of the First World War in 1914. This
assumption has led to the conclusion that the migrants’ subsequent lack of
economic mobility in the North is tied to rural background, a background that
implies unfamiliarity with urban living and a lack of industrial skills.
But the question of who
actually left the South has never been rigorously investigated. Although
numerous investigations document an exodus from rural southern areas to
southern cities prior to the Great Migration, no one has considered whether the
same migrants then moved on to northern cities. In 1910, over 600,000 Black
workers, or ten percent of the Black work force, reported themselves to be
engaged in “manufacturing and mechanical pursuits,” the federal census category
roughly encompassing the entire industrial sector. The Great Migration could
easily have been made up entirely of this group and their families. It is
perhaps surprising to argue that an employed population could be enticed to
move, but an explanation lies in the labor conditions prevalent in the South.
About thirty-five percent of
the urban Black population in the South was engaged in skilled trades. Some
were from the old artisan class of slavery-blacksmiths, masons,
carpenters-which had had a monopoly of certain trades, but they were gradually
being pushed out by competition, mechanization, and obsolescence. The remaining
sixty-five percent, more recently urbanized, worked in newly developed
industries—tobacco, lumber, coal and iron manufacture and railroads. Wages in
the South, however, were low, and Black workers were aware, through labor recruiters
and the Black press, that they could earn more even as unskilled workers in the
North than they could as artisans in the South. After the boll weevil
infestation, urban Black workers faced competition from the continuing influx
of both Black and White rural workers, who were driven to undercut the wages
formerly paid for industrial jobs.
Thus, a move towards the North
would be seen as advantageous to a group that was already urbanized and
steadily employed, and the easy conclusion tying their subsequent economic
problems in the North to their rural background comes into question.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
12. The
author indicates explicitly that which of the following records has been a
source of information in her investigation?
(A) United States Immigration Service reports
from 1914 to 1930
(B) Payrolls of southern manufacturing firms
between 1910 and 1930
(C) The volume of cotton exports between 1898
and 1910
(D) The federal census of 1910
(E) Advertisements of labor recruiters
appearing in southern newspapers after 1910
13. In the passage, the author
anticipates which of the following as a possible objection to her argument?
(A) It is uncertain how many people actually
migrated during the Great Migration.
(B) The eventual economic status of the Great
Migration migrants has not been adequately traced.
(C) It is not likely that people with steady
jobs would have reason to move to another area of the country.
(D) It is not true that the term
“manufacturing and mechanical pursuits” actually encompasses the entire
industrial sector.
(E) Of the Black workers living in southern
cities, only those in a small number of trades were threatened by obsolescence.
14. According to the passage, which
of the following is true about the wages in southern cities in 1910?
(A) They were being pushed lower as a result
of increased competition.
(B) They had begun to rise so that southern
industry could attract rural workers.
(C) They had increased for skilled workers but
decreased for unskilled workers.
(D) They had increased in large southern
cities but decreased in small southern cities.
(E) They had increased in newly developed
industries but decreased in the older trades.
15. The author cites each of the
following as possible influences in a Black worker’s decision to migrate north
in the Great Migration EXCEPT
(A) wage levels in northern cities
(B) labor recruiters
(C) competition from rural workers
(D) voting rights in northern states
(E) the Black press
16. The primary purpose of the passage
is to
(A) support an alternative to an accepted
methodology
(B) present evidence that resolves a
contradiction
(C) introduce a recently discovered source of
information
(D) challenge a widely accepted explanation
(E) argue that a discarded theory deserves new
attention
Solution
1. D is the best answer. The question
requires you to recognize which of the choices is NOT mentioned in the passage
as a way in which senior managers use intuition. The passage does not mention
stipulating goals.
2. D is the best answer. The author asserts that the writers in
question “display a poor grasp of
what intuition is” . The next paragraph
presents a view that, according to the author of the passage, characterizes
intuition more accurately than the writers on management do. Isenberg’s
research is specifically described as showing the ways in which managers use
intuition. Therefore, what Isenberg correctly comprehends, and the writers in
question misunderstand, is how managers use intuition, as this choice states.
3. D is the best answer. The question requires you to recognize
which of the choices is NOT mentioned in the passage as a component of the
classical model of decision analysis. Only this choice, “action undertaken in order to discover more information
about a problem,” does not appear in the
passage.
4. C is the best answer. The question requires you to compare
behavior based on intuition with behavior based on formal decision analysis.
This choice specifies that the manager who uses intuition incorporates action
into the decision-making process, but the manager who uses formal analysis does
not. This distinction is made in several places in the passage. The passage
emphasizes that decision-making and action-taking are separate steps in formal
decision analysis: “making
a decision, and only then taking action.” On the other hand, those who use intuition “integrate action into the process of thinking”.Again, the author mentions that in the intuitive style of
management, “ ‘thinking’ is inseparable
from acting”, and “action is often part of defining the problem”.
5. E is the best answer. The question requires you to identify
a statement that can be inferred from information in the passage but is not
explicitly stated. The author asserts that intuitive managers can “move rapidly to engender a plausible solution” and that their intuition is based on “experience that builds skill”. This implies that the combination of skill and rapidity enables
mangers to employ their practical experience more efficiently, as this choice
states.
6. E is the best answer. The second and third paragraphs of the
passage indicate that morphogenetic determinants are substances in the embryo
that are activated after the egg has been fertilized and that “tell a cell what to become”. If, as the author asserts in the first paragraph, biologists
have succeeded in dividing an embryo into two parts, each of which survives and
develops into a normal embryo, it can be concluded that the quantity of
morphogenetic determinants in the early embryo is greater than that required
for the development of a single individual.
7. D is the best answer. In identifying the main topic of the
passage, you must consider the passage as a whole. In the first paragraph, the
author provides a historical context for the debate described in the second
paragraph, concerning when and how the determination of embryo cells takes
place. The third and forth paragraphs provide a specific example of the “Recent discoveries in molecular biology” that may lead to the resolution of that debate.
8. E is the best answer. According to the author, early
investigators arrived at the conclusion that the cells of the embryo are
undetermined because they “found
that if they separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts at an early
stage of its life, it would survive and develop as two normal embryos”. However, later biologists discovered that when an embryo was
cut in places different from the one used by the early investigators, it did
not form two whole embryos. Because the earlier biologists apparently arrived
at their conclusion without attempting to cut an embryo in different planes, it
would appear that they assumed, erroneously, that different ways of separating
the embryos would not affect the fate of the two embryo parts.
9. A is the best answer. In the third paragraph, the author
asserts that substances that function as morphogenetic determinants are located
in the cytoplasm of the cell and become active after the cell is fertilized. In
the fourth paragraph we learn that these substances are “maternal messenger RNA’s” and
that they “direct, in large part, the
synthesis of histones,” which, after being
synthesized, “move into the cell nucleus”. Thus, it can be inferred that after the egg is fertilized, the
initial production of histones occurs in the cytoplasm.
10. B is the best answer. Lines in the passage indicate that
substances that function as morphogenetic determinants are inactive in the
unfertilized egg and that when the egg is fertilized, they “become active and, presumably, govern the behavior of the genes
they interact with.” In the fourth paragraph,
we learn that these substances exert their control over the fate of the cell by
directing “the synthesis of histones.” Because these histones cannot be synthesized until the
substances that function as morphogenetic determinants become active, and
because these substances do not become active until the egg is fertilized, it
can be inferred that the synthesis of the histones is dependent on the
fertilization of the egg.
11. C is the best answer. In his study of sea urchins,
Gross “found that an unfertilized egg
contains substances that function as morphogetic determinants.” The passage asserts that the “substances that Gross studied are maternal messenger RNA’s,” and we learn that these maternal messenger RNA’s can be
found in “ a wide variety of organisms”.
12. D is the best answer. In the passage, the author states that
ten percent of the Black workers in the South were employed in “manufacturing and mechanical pursuits” and then identifies “manufacturing and mechanical pursuits” as the general federal census category for industrial
occupations in 1910. Thus, she indicates that she used the federal census as a
source of information.
13. C is the best answer. To answer this question, you must
first identify the author’s argument. The author argues that it is possible
that Black migrants to the North were living and working in urban areas of the
South rather in rural areas, as researchers had previously assumed. In the
passage, the author states that it may be “surprising” that
an employed population would relocate. Thus, the author anticipates an
objection to her argument on the grounds that Black urban workers in the South
would have been unlikely to leave an economically secure existence. She meets
that objection by stating that “an
explanation lies in the labor conditions then prevalent in the South”, and discusses the low wages that may have motivated Black
workers to migrate north for higher pay.
14. A is the best answer. The author discusses wages in southern
cities in the third paragraph. Lines state that an increase in the number of
rural workers who migrated to southern cities after the collapse of the cotton
industry led to increased competition for jobs and resulted in wages being
pushed lower.
15. D is the best answer. This question asks you to identify the
possible influences that motivated Black workers in their decision to migrate
north, and then to recognize which of the choices is NOT mentioned as an
influence on Black workers. This is the only option not mentioned in the
passage as an influence that may have motivated southern Black workers to move
north.
16. D is the best answer. The first paragraph describes a common
assumption about the Great Migration, that the majority of migrants came from
rural areas. It also restates the conclusion that is based on this assumption,
that the subsequent economic difficulties of Black migrants in the North were a
result of their unfamiliarity with urban life. In the second paragraph, the
author states that the “question
of who actually left the South” has
never been adequately researched. She goes on to argue that Black migrants may
actually have been from urban areas rather than rural areas, and thus that
their subsequent economic problems in northern cities were not caused by their
rural background. In making this argument, the author is challenging the “widely accepted explanation” presented in the first paragraph.
Next set
Passage 1:
Many United States companies
have, unfortunately, made the search for legal protection from import
competition into a major line of work. Since 1980 the United States
International Trade Commission (ITC) has received about 280 complaints alleging
damage from imports that benefit from subsidies by foreign governments. Another
340 charge that foreign companies “dumped” their products in the United States
at “less than fair value.” Even when no unfair practices are alleged, the
simple claim that an industry has been injured by imports is sufficient grounds
to seek relief.
Contrary to the general
impression, this quest for import relief has hurt more companies than it has
helped. As corporations begin to function globally, they develop an intricate
web of marketing, production, and research relationships, The complexity of
these relationships makes it unlikely that a system of import relief laws will
meet the strategic needs of all the units under the same parent company.
Internationalization increases
the danger that foreign companies will use import relief laws against the very
companies the laws were designed to protect. Suppose a United States-owned
company establishes an overseas plant to manufacture a product while its
competitor makes the same product in the United States. If the competitor can
prove injury from the imports—and that the United States company received a
subsidy from a foreign government to build its plant abroad—the United States
company’s products will be uncompetitive in the United States, since they would
be subject to duties.
Perhaps the most brazen case
occurred when the ITC investigated allegations that Canadian companies were
injuring the United States salt industry by dumping rock salt, used to de-ice
roads. The bizarre aspect of the complaint was that a foreign conglomerate with
United States operations was crying for help against a United States company
with foreign operations. The “United States” company claiming injury was a
subsidiary of a Dutch conglomerate, while the “Canadian” companies included a
subsidiary of a Chicago firm that was the second-largest domestic producer of
rock salt.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
1. The passage is chiefly
concerned with
(A) arguing against the increased
internationalization of United States corporations
(B) warning that the application of laws
affecting trade frequently has unintended consequences
(C) demonstrating that foreign-based firms
receive more subsidies from their governments than United States firms receive
from the United States government
(D) advocating the use of trade restrictions
for “dumped” products but not for other imports
(E) recommending a uniform method for handling
claims of unfair trade practices
2. It can be inferred from the
passage that the minimal basis for a complaint to the International Trade
Commission is which of the following?
(A) A foreign competitor has received a
subsidy from a foreign government.
(B) A foreign competitor has substantially
increased the volume of products shipped to the United States.
(C) A foreign competitor is selling products
in the United States at less than fair market value.
(D) The company requesting import relief has
been injured by the sale of imports in the United States. (E) The company
requesting import relief has been barred from exporting products to the country
of its foreign competitor.
3. The last paragraph performs
which of the following functions in the passage?
(A) It summarizes the discussion thus far and
suggests additional areas of research.
(B) It presents a recommendation based on the
evidence presented earlier.
(C) It discusses an exceptional case in which
the results expected by the author of the passage were not obtained.
(D) It introduces an additional area of
concern not mentioned earlier.
(E) It cites a specific case that illustrates
a problem presented more generally in the previous paragraph.
4. The passage warns of which
of the following dangers?
(A) Companies in the United States may receive
no protection from imports unless they actively seek protection from import
competition.
(B) Companies that seek legal protection from
import competition may incur legal costs that far exceed any possible gain.
(C) Companies that are United States-owned but
operate internationally may not be eligible for protection from import
competition under the laws of the countries in which their plants operate.
(D) Companies that are not United States-owned
may seek legal protection from import competition under United States import
relief laws.
(E) Companies in the United States that import
raw materials may have to pay duties on those materials.
5. The passage suggests that
which of the following is most likely to be true of United States trade laws?
(A) They will eliminate the practice of
“dumping” products in the United States.
(B) They will enable manufacturers in the
United States to compete more profitably outside the United States.
(C) They will affect United States trade with
Canada more negatively than trade with other nations.
(D) Those that help one unit within a parent
company will not necessarily help other units in the company.
(E) Those that are applied to international
companies will accomplish their intended result.
6. It can be inferred from the
passage that the author believes which of the following about the complaint
mentioned in the last paragraph?
(A) The ITC acted unfairly toward the
complainant in its investigation.
(B) The complaint violated the intent of
import relief laws.
(C) The response of the ITC to the complaint
provided suitable relief from unfair trade practices to the complainant.
(D) The ITC did not have access to appropriate
information concerning the case.
(E) Each of the companies involved in the
complaint acted in its own best interest.
Passage 2:
At the end of the nineteenth
century, a rising interest in Native American customs and an increasing desire
to understand Native American culture prompted ethnologists to begin recording
the life stories of Native American. Ethnologists had a distinct reason for
wanting to hear the stories: they were after linguistic or anthropological data
that would supplement their own field observations, and they believed that the
personal stories, even of a single individual, could increase their
understanding of the cultures that they had been observing from without. In
addition many ethnologists at the turn of the century believed that Native
American manners and customs were rapidly disappearing, and that it was
important to preserve for posterity as much information as could be adequately
recorded before the cultures disappeared forever.
There were, however, arguments
against this method as a way of acquiring accurate and complete information.
Franz Boas, for example, described autobiographies as being “of limited value,
and useful chiefly for the study of the perversion of truth by memory,” while
Paul Radin contended that investigators rarely spent enough time with the
tribes they were observing, and inevitably derived results too tinged by the
investigator’s own emotional tone to be reliable. Even more importantly, as
these life stories moved from the traditional oral mode to recorded written
form, much was inevitably lost. Editors often decided what elements were
significant to the field research on a given tribe. Native Americans recognized
that the essence of their lives could not be communicated in English and that
events that they thought significant were often deemed unimportant by their
interviewers. Indeed, the very act of telling their stories could force Native
American narrators to distort their cultures, as taboos had to be broken to
speak the names of dead relatives crucial to their family stories. Despite all
of this, autobiography remains a useful tool for ethnological research: such
personal reminiscences and impressions, incomplete as they may be, are likely
to throw more light on the working of the mind and emotions than any
amount of speculation from an ethnologist or ethnological theorist from another
culture.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
7. Which of the following best
describes the organization of the passage?
(A) The historical backgrounds of two
currently used research methods are chronicled.
(B) The validity of the data collected by
using two different research methods is compared.
(C) The usefulness of a research method is
questioned and then a new method is proposed.
(D) The use of a research method is described
and the limitations of the results obtained are discussed.
(E) A research method is evaluated and the
changes necessary for its adaptation to other subject areas are discussed.
8. Which of the following is
most similar to the actions of nineteenth-century ethnologists in their editing
of the life stories of Native Americans?
(A) A witness in a jury trial invokes the
Fifth Amendment in order to avoid relating personally incriminating evidence.
(B) A stockbroker refuses to divulge the
source of her information on the possible future increase in a stock’s value.
(C) A sports announcer describes the action in
a team sport with which he is unfamiliar.
(D) A chef purposely excludes the special
ingredient from the recipe of his prizewinning dessert.
(E) A politician fails to mention in a
campaign speech the similarities in the positions held by her opponent for
political office and by herself.
9. According to the passage,
collecting life stories can be a useful methodology because
(A) life stories provide deeper insights into
a culture than the hypothesizing of academics who are not members of that
culture
(B) life stories can be collected easily and
they are not subject to invalid interpretations
(C) ethnologists have a limited number of
research methods from which to choose
(D) life stories make it easy to distinguish
between the important and unimportant features of a culture
(E) the collection of life stories does not
require a culturally knowledgeable investigator
10. Information in the passage
suggests that which of the following may be a possible way to eliminate bias in
the editing of life stories?
(A) Basing all inferences made about the
culture on an ethnological theory
(B) Eliminating all of the emotion-laden
information reported by the informant
(C) Translating the informant’s words into the
researcher’s language
(D) Reducing the number of questions and
carefully specifying the content of the questions that the investigator can ask
the informant
(E) Reporting all of the information that the
informant provides regardless of the investigator’s personal opinion about its
intrinsic value
11. The primary purpose of the
passage as a whole is to
(A) question an explanation
(B) correct a misconception
(C) critique a methodology
(D) discredit an idea
(E) clarify an ambiguity
12. It can be inferred from the
passage that a characteristic of the ethnological research on Native Americans
conducted during the nineteenth century was the use of which of the following?
(A) Investigators familiar with the culture
under study
(B) A language other than the informant’s for
recording life stories
(C) Life stories as the ethnologist’s primary
source of information
(D) Complete transcriptions of informants’
descriptions of tribal beliefs
(E) Stringent guidelines for the preservation
of cultural data
Passage 3 :
Let us go then, you and I, When
the evening is spread out against the sky Like a patient etherized upon a
table; Let us go, through certain half-deserted streets, The muttering retreats
Of restless nights in one-night cheap hotels And sawdust restaurants with
oyster-shells: Streets that follow like a tedious argument Of insidious intent
To lead you to an overwhelming question. . . Oh, do not ask, “What is it?” Let
us go and make our visit.
In the room the women come and
go Talking of Michelangelo.
The yellow fog that rubs its
back upon the window-panes
The yellow smoke that rubs its
muzzle on the window-panes Licked its tongue into the corners of the evening
Lingered upon the pools that stand in drains, Let fall upon its back the soot
that falls from chimneys, Slipped by the terrace, made a sudden leap, And
seeing that it was a soft October night Curled once about the house, and fell
asleep.
And indeed there will be time
For the yellow smoke that slides along the street, Rubbing its back upon the
window-panes; There will be time, there will be time To prepare a face to meet
the faces that you meet; There will be time to murder and create, And time for
all the works and days of hands That lift and drop a question on your plate;
Time for you and time for me, And time yet for a hundred indecisions And for a
hundred visions and revisions Before the taking of a toast and tea.
In the room the women come and
go Talking of Michelangelo.And indeed there will be time
To wonder, “Do I dare?” and,
“Do I dare?”
Time to turn back and descend
the stair, With a bald spot in the middle of my hair— [They will say: “How his
hair is growing thin!”] My morning coat, my collar mounting firmly to the chin,
My necktie rich and modest, but asserted by a simple pin— [They will say: “But
how his arms and legs are thin!”] Do I dare Disturb the universe? In a minute there
is time for decisions and revisions which a minute will reverse.
For I have known them all
already, known them all; Have known the evenings, mornings, afternoons, I have
measured out my life with coffee spoons; I know the voices dying with a dying
fall Beneath the music from a farther room. So how should I presume?
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
13) Which of the following
meanings can be inferred from the lines “o I dare Disturb the universe?”
(a) The author is referring to his bright
future.
(b) The author fears that he will cause some
major upheaval in world.
(c) The author refers to the ‘status quo’ in
which he is in.
(d) The author expresses his feeling of being
pinned against a wall.
(e) The author is apprehensive about his last
days.
14) What, according to the
passage, is the reason for the author’s optimism?
(a) That the women are talking of
Michelangelo.
(b) That the yellow fog rubs upon the
window-panes.
(c) That it was an October night.
(d) That there will be moments for everything.
(e) That the falling soot made a sudden leap.
15) In the first ten lines of
the passage the author embodies which of the following with human attributes?
(a) toast
(b) restaurants
(c) intent
(d) retreats
(e) arguments
16) In the passage, evening is
compared to:
(a) The spreading sky
(b) The anesthetized patient
(c) Wicked people
(d) The deserted streets
(e) A walk in the streets
Solutions
1. The best answer is B. In the first sentence
of the passage, the author characterizes the preoccupation of many United
States companies with the search for legal protection from import competition
as unfortunate. Then, the author explains that the “quest for import relief has hurt more companies than it has
helped.” The third paragraph
discusses one situation in which United States companies might experience such
injury-when import relief laws are used against foreign subsidiaries of United
States company-and the last paragraph provides a specific example of this
situation. Thus, it can be inferred that the author’s primary concern is to
warn about possible unintended negative consequences of applying trade laws.
2. The best answer is D. Bases for complaints
to the International Trade Commission are discussed in the first paragraph. The
author mentions the two specific kinds of complaints referred to in choices A
and C (about imports benefiting from subsidies provided by foreign government
sand about “dumping”), but goes on to conclude the paragraph with the comment
that “the simple clam that an
industry has been injured by imports is sufficient grounds to seek relief.” That a “simple
claim” is “sufficient grounds to seek relief” suggests that the minimal basis for a complaint to the ITC
is injury from the sale of imports in the United States, as stated in choice D.
The situations in choices B and E are not discussed in the passage.
3.The best answer is E. The last paragraph
discusses a specific case in which a United States subsidiary of a Dutch
conglomerate accused a Canadian branch of a United States company of “dumping” rock salt in the United
States market. This incident is cited as “the most brazen case”of
the problem stated in the previous paragraph: the use of import relief laws by
foreign companies against of U.S. companies. No recommendations, discussion of
unexpected results, or additional areas of research or concern are mentioned in
the paragraph. Thus, choices A, B, C and D are not correct.
4.The best answer is D. The “danger” of import relief laws is
stated : “that foreign companies will
use import relief laws against the very companies the laws were designed to
protect.” Import relief laws are
the legal protection referred to in choice D. The passage does not mention the
situations described in choice A, B, C, and E.
5.The best answer is D. In the passage, the
author warns that it is “unlikely
that a system of import relief laws will meet the strategic needs of all the
units under the same parent company.” Thus,
it can be inferred that the United States trade laws dealing with import relief
will not necessarily help all units of a company, as stated in choice D. There
is no indication in the passage that United States trade laws are expected to
eliminate dumping, as is stated in choice A. Choice E is not discussed in the
passage of the situations mentioned in choice B and C.
6.The best answer is B. The author states
that “The bizarre aspect of the
complaint was that a foreign conglomerate…was crying for help against a United
States company…” It can be inferred that
import relief laws were designed to protect United States companies from
foreign competition. Thus, the lodging of a complaint by a foreign conglomerate
against a United States company violated the intent of the laws.
7. The best answer is D. The first paragraph
of the passage identifies a research method (recording life stories) and
explains the method’s uses. The second and third paragraphs explain limitations
of the method’s results. The final paragraph explains why the research method
is useful despite its limitations. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect because
only one research method is discussed, not two. Choice E can be eliminated
because the passage does not discuss changing the method or adapting it to any
other subject area.
8.The best answer is C. The Passage suggests
that ethnologists “rarely
spent enough time with the tribes they were observing.” Ethnologists who did not spend enough time with tribes they
were observing were unlikely to be sufficiently familiar with the culture and
customs of those tribes. Such ethnologists nevertheless attempted to describe
the lives of tribal members. This attempt can be seen as analogous to the
announcer’s attempt to describe the actions in a team sport with which he is
unfamiliar. Choice A, B, and D can be eliminated because the passage does not
suggest ethnologists deliberately withheld information. Choice E is incorrect
because the passage does not mention any common ideas or positions held by both
the ethnologists and the Native Americans.
9.The best answer is A, which paraphrases the
passage’s assertion that life stores “are likely to throw more light on the working of the mind and
emotions than any amount of speculation from an ethnologist or ethnological
theorist from another culture” .Choice
B is incorrect because the passage does not assess the difficulty of collecting
life stories, and because the second paragraph discusses ways in which life
stories became distorted. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not
specify how many research methods are available to ethnologists. Choice D can
be eliminated because the third paragraph mentions distortion arising from
ethnologists’ failure to recognize significant events in life stories. Choice E
is incorrect because the second paragraph suggests that life stories would be
more useful if collected by culturally knowledgeable investigators.
10.The best answer is E. In the third
paragraph, the passage asserts that editors made their own decisions about
which elements of the Native Americans’ life stories were important. It can
therefore be inferred from the passage that reporting all of an informant’s
information would help eliminate bias, because editing had involved subjective
judgments about the intrinsic value of the information. Choice A, C, and D can
be eliminated because the passage does not attribute bias to failures in
adhering to ethnological theory, to translations into the researchers’
language, or problems in the numbers and content of question posed. Choice B is
not supported because the second paragraph criticizes the emotion of the
report, not that of the informant, for introducing bias.
11.The best answer is C. The passage describes
a methodology, explain the methodology’s intended uses, criticizes the
methodology’s accurateness and comprehensiveness, and reaffirms the
methodology’s usefulness despite its limitations. Thus, the primary
purpose of the passage is to evaluate or critique a methodology.
12. The best answer is B. The passage states
that “Native Americans recognized that the essence of their lives could not be
communicated in English,” that is, in the language of the ethnologists
recording the life stories. Since this statement supports the idea that “much was inevitably lost,” it can be inferred that the informants used a language other
than that used to record their life stories. Choice A is incorrect because, in
the second paragraph, the investigators are criticized for lacking familiarity
with the cultures they studies. Choice C is incorrect because ethnologists
recorded life stories to “supplement
their own field observations”. Choice
D is incorrect because the passage indicates that life stories were edited;
choice E is incorrect because the passage provides no information about
guidelines used by the researchers.
13) Option (c) The lines “And indeed… I presume?” spell
out the circle of concern which is limited to the immediate and the temporal
world, nowhere do the lines depict any issues with the larger picture in life.
The author is in a ‘status quo’ and deciding what to do.
14) Option (d) The passage stresses on the
fact that “there will be time” for everything.
15) Option (d) The phrase “muttering retreats” makes
option (d) correct.
16) Option (b) In the olden days, ether was
used to anesthetize patients.
Next Set
Passage 1:
All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the
same complement of genes. How then can these cells differentiate and form
structures as different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that
only a small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are expressed, or
turned on, at a given time. This is accomplished by a complex system of
chemical messengers that in plants include hormones and other regulatory
molecules. Five major hormones have been identified: auxin, abscisic acid,
cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin. Studies of plants have now identified a
new class of regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins.
Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant
hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific; that is, each has more than one
effect on the growth and development of plants. The five has so many
simultaneous effects that they are not very useful in artificially controlling
the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance, stimulates the rate of cell
elongation, causes shoots to grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the
growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to develop a vascular
system, to form lateral roots, and to produce ethylene.
The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant hormones is
somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones in animal. For example, hormones
from the hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary
gland to synthesize and release many different hormones, one of which
stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones have
specific effects on target organs all over the body. One hormone stimulates the
thyroid gland, for example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth.
In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones. Such a hierarchy may also
exist in plants. Oligosaccharins are fragments of the cell wall released by
enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins. There are
indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may actually function by activating
the enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical messengers from
the cell wall.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
1.
According to the passage, the five well-known plant hormones are not useful in
controlling the growth of crops because
(A) it is
not known exactly what functions the hormones perform
(B) each
hormone has various effects on plants
(C) none
of the hormones can function without the others
(D) each
hormone has different effects on different kinds of plants
(E) each hormone
works on only a small subset of a cell’s genes at any particular time
2. the
passage suggests that the place of hypothalamic hormones in the hormonal
hierarchies of animals is similar to the place of which of the following in
plants?
(a) plant
cell walls
(b) the
complement of genes in each plant cell
(c) a
subset of a plant cell’s gene complement
(d) the
five major hormones
(e) the
oligosaccharins
3. the
passage suggests that which of the following is a function likely to be
performed by an oligosaccharin?
(a) to
stimulate a particular plant cell to become part of a plant’s root system
(b) to
stimulate the walls of a particular cell to produce other oligosaccharins
(c) to
activate enzymes that release specific chemical messengers from plant cell walls
(d) to
duplicate the gene complement in a particular plant cell
(e) to
produce multiple effects on a particular subsystem of plant cells
4. the
author mentions specific effects that auxin has on plant development in order
to illustrate the
(a) point
that some of the effects of plant hormones can be harmful
(b) way
in which hormones are produced by plants
(c)
hierarchical nature of the functioning of plant hormones
(d)
differences among the best-known plant hormones
(e)
concept of pleiotropy as it is exhibited by plant hormones
5.
according to the passage, which of the following best describes a function
performed by oligosaccharin?
(a)
regulating the daily functioning of a plant’s cells
(b)
interacting with one another to produce different chemicals
(c)
releasing specific chemical messengers from a plant’s cell walls
(d)
producing the hormones that cause plant cells to differentiate to perform
different functions
(e)
influencing the development of a plant’s cells by controlling the expression of
the cells’ genes
6. the
passage suggests that, unlike the pleiotropic hormones,
oligosaccharin could be used effectively to
(a) trace
the passage of chemicals through the walls of cells
(b)
pinpoint functions of other plant hormones
(c)
artificially control specific aspects of the development of crops
(d) alter
the complement of genes in the cells of plants
(e) alter
the effects of the five major hormones on plant development
Passage 2:
Two recent publications offer different assessments of
the career of the famous British nurse Florence Nightingale. A book by Anne
Summers seeks to debunk the idealizations and present a reality at odds with
Nightingale’s heroic reputation. According to Summers Nightingale’s importance
during the Crimean War has been exaggerated: not until near the war’s end did
she become supervisor of the female nurses. Additionally, Summers writes that
the contribution of the nurses to the relief of the wounded was at best
marginal. The prevailing problems of military medicine were caused by army
organizational practices, and the addition of a few nurses to the medical staff
could be no more than symbolic. Nightingale’s place in the national pantheon,
Summers asserts, is largely due to the propagandistic efforts of contemporary
newspaper reporters.
By contrast, the editors of a new volume of Nightingale’s
letters view Nightingale as a person who significantly influenced not only her
own age but also subsequent generations. They highlight her ongoing efforts to
reform sanitary conditions after the war. For example, when she learned that
peacetime living conditions in British barracks were so horrible that the death
rate of enlisted men far exceeded that of neighboring civilian populations, she
succeeded in persuading the government to establish a Royal Commission on the
Health of the Army. She used sums raised through public contributions to found
a nurses’ training hospital in London. Even in administrative matters, the
editors assert her practical intelligence was formidable: as recently as 1947
the British Army’s medical services were still using the cost-accounting system
she had devised in the 1860’s.
I believe that the evidence of her letters supports
continued respect for Nightingale’s brilliance and creativity. When counseling
a village schoolmaster to encourage children to use their faculties of
observation she sounds like a modern educator. Her insistence on classifying
the problems of the needy in order to devise appropriate treatments is similar
to the approach of modern social workers. In sum, although Nightingale may not
have achieved all other goals during the Crimean War, her breadth of vision and
ability to realize ambitious projects have earned her an eminent place among
the ranks of social pioneers.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
7. The
passage is primarily concerned with evaluating
(A) the importance of Florence Nightingale’s innovations in the field of
nursing
(B) contrasting approaches to the writing of historical biography
(C) contradictory accounts of Florence Nightingale’s historical significance
(D) the quality of health care in nineteenth-century England
(E) the effect of the Crimean War on developments in the field of health care
8.
According to the passage, the editors of Nightingale’s letters credit her with
contributing to which of the following?
(A) Improvement of the survival rate for soldiers in British Army hospitals
during the Crimean War
(B) The development of a nurses’ training curriculum that was far in advance of
its day
(C) The increase in the number of women doctors practicing in British Army
hospitals
(D) Establishment of the first facility for training nurses at a major British
university
(E) The creation of an organization for monitoring the peacetime living
conditions of British soldiers
9. The
passage suggests which of the following about Nightingale’s relationship with
the British public of her day?
(A) She was highly respected, her projects receiving popular and governmental
support.
(B) She encountered resistance both from the army establishment and the general
public.
(C) She was supported by the working classes and opposed by the wealthier
classes.
(D) She was supported by the military establishment but had to fight the
governmental bureaucracy.
(E) After initially being received with enthusiasm, she was quickly forgotten.
10. The
passage suggests which of the following about sanitary conditions in Britain
after the Crimean War?
(A) While not ideal, they were superior to those in other parts of the world.
(B) Compared with conditions before the war, they had deteriorated.
(C) They were more advanced in rural areas than in the urban centers.
(D) They were worse in military camps than in the neighboring civilian
populations.
(E) They were uniformly crude and unsatisfactory throughout England.
11. With
which of the following statements regarding the differing interpretations of
Nightingale’s importance would the author most likely agree?
(A) Summers misunderstood both the importance of Nightingale’s achievements during
the Crimean War and her subsequent influence on British policy.
(B) The editors of Nightingale’s letters made some valid points about her
practical achievements but they still exaggerated her influence on subsequent
generations.
(C) Although Summers’ account of Nightingale’s role in the Crimean War may be
accurate, she ignored evidence of Nightingale’s subsequent achievement that
suggests that her reputation as an eminent social reformer is well deserved.
(D) The editors of Nightingale’s letters mistakenly propagated the outdated
idealization of Nightingale that only impedes attempts to arrive at a balanced
assessment of her true role.
(E) The evidence of Nightingale’s letters supports Summers’ conclusions both
about Nightingale’s activities and about her influence.
12. Which
of the following is an assumption underlying the author’s assessment of
Nightingale’s creativity?
(A) Educational philosophy in Nightingale’s day did not normally emphasize
developing children’s ability to observe.
(B) Nightingale was the first to notice the poor living conditions in British
military barracks in peacetime.
(C) No educator before Nightingale had thought to enlist the help of village
schoolmasters in introducing new teaching techniques.
(D) Until Nightingale began her work, there was no concept of organized help
for the needy in nineteenth-century Britain.
(E) The British army’s medical services had no cost- accounting system until
Nightingale devised one in the 1860’s.
13. In
the last paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with
(A) summarizing the arguments about Nightingale presented in the first two
paragraphs
(B) refuting the view of Nightingale’s career presented in the preceding
paragraph
(C) analyzing the weaknesses of the evidence presented elsewhere in the passage
(D) citing evidence to support a view of Nightingale’s career
(E) correcting a factual error occurring in one of the works under review
Solutions
1.The best answer is B. The passage states
each of the five well-know plant hormones ‘has more than one effect on the
growth and development of plants” and that, for this reason, “they are not very
useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops” .Choice A is not
correct because the passage describes some of the functions performed by the hormone
auxin. Choice E is consistent with information presented in the passage, but by
emphasizing the specific effect hormone have at the cellular level rather than
the multiplicity of effects they have on the entire plant, E fails to prove the
reason stated in the passage that the five hormones are not useful in
controlling the growth of crops. Neither C nor D is suggested by anything in
the passage.
2.The best answer is D. According to the
passage, “The pleiotropy of the five
well-studies plant hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones
in animals” .The example given
involves certain hypothalamic hormones that “stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to synthesize
and release many different hormones, one of which stimulates the release of
hormones from the adrenal cortex”. These
hormones in turn “have specific effects on
target organs all over the body”.
This “hierarchy of hormones,” as the author calls it, “may also exist in plants”(line
35), where the five pleiotropic hormones may “function by activating the enzymes that release … more specific
chemical messengers”. Thus, hypothalamic
hormones in animals and the five major hormones in plants occupy a similar
place in the respective organisms” hormonal hierarchy.
3. The best answer is A. The last paragraph
characterizes oligosaccharins as “specific
chemical messengers”. The passage indicates that
these chemical messengers are “specific” in that, unlike the pleiotropic hormones, they are likely to
have particular effects on particular plant cells. Choice A is correct because
it is the only answer choice that describes an effect on a specific aspect of
plant growth and development: stimulating a particular plant cell to become
part of a plant’s root system. Choice B and C are incorrect because the last
paragraph indicates that enzymes activate the release of oligosaccharins.
Choice D is incorrect because, although oligosaccharins do affect the activity
of the gene complement of a particular cell, they do not duplicate that complement.
Choice E is incorrect because the second paragraph indicates that an
oligosaccharin has a specific effect rather than multiple effects on plant
cells.
4. The best answer is E. The second paragraph
states that the five major plant hormones, including auxin, are pleiotropic and
indicates that each pleiotropic hormone has “more than one effect on the growth and development of plants”. The effects of auxin are then listed in detail to provide an
example of the different effects a pleiotropic hormone can have on a plant.
Thus, the specific effects of auxin are mentioned to illustrate the concept of
pleiotropy as it is exhibited by plant hormones. Choice C can be eliminated
because the specific effects that auxin has on plant development are not
discussed in the context of the hierarchy of hormones. Choice A, B, and D are
incorrect because they cite topics that are not discussed in the passage.
5.The best answer is E. The first paragraph
states that plant cells “differentiate
and form structures”when a “complex system of chemical messengers” activates a “small
subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell” .In the passage, the author elaborates on the hormonal
system in plants by indicating that the pleiotropic plant hormones activate
enzymes, which in turn release oligosaccharins-the “more specific chemical messengers”. The second paragraph indicated these specific chemical
messengers have specific effects on plant development. Thus, the passage
indicates that it is the oligosaccharins that directly influence the
development of a plant cell by controlling the expression of a plant cell’s
genes. Choices C and D are incorrect because the oligosaccharins are themselves
specific chemical messengers and are not said to produce any hormones. The
passage provides no information to support A or B.
6.The best answer is C. The passage states
that because each pleiotropic hormone has so many different effects on a plant,
pleiotropic hormones “are
not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of crops”. In contrast, the passage indicates that oligosaccharins have
specific effects on the growth and development of plants. Thus, in comparison
to the pleiotropic hormones, oligosaccharins could potentially be effective in
artificially controlling specific aspects of crop development. Choices A, B, D,
and E can be eliminated because they describe functions that are not attributed
in the passage either to the pleiotropic hormones or to oligosaccharins.
7. This question asks you to identify the
primary concern of the passage. The best answer is C. According to the first
paragraph, the passage is about two different assessments of Florence
Nightingale’s career. The first paragraph summarizes one of these assessments;
the second paragraph presents a contrasting account of Nightingale’s career
that contradicts the central point of the first account. Choice A is incorrect.
Although the passage discusses various aspects of Florence Nightingale’s
involvement in the field of nursing, it does not mention any innovations that she
introduced to that field. Choice B is not correct because the passage does not
discuss approaches to the writing of historical biography. Choice D is also
incorrect. Although the passage refers to the specific problems of military
medicine during the Crimean War and to the poor living conditions of British
soldiers after the war, the passage does not discuss the broader, more general
issue of the quality of health care in nineteenth-century England. And choice E
is not the answer because the passage does not mention the effects of the
Crimean War on developments in health care.
8. This question asks you to identify a
contribution that the editors of Nightingale’s letters attribute to her. The
best answer is E. In the second paragraph, several of Nightingale’s post-war
accomplishments that are highlighted by the editors of her letters are
mentioned. In the passage, her contribution to the creation of an organization
for monitoring the peacetime living conditions of British soldiers is mentioned
as one of these. Choice A is not correct. The editors of Nightingale’s letters
cite the relatively high death rate of British soldiers after the Crimean War,
but they do not mention their survival rate during the war. Choice B is
incorrect, because the passage does not provide any information about the
curriculum of the nurses’ training hospital that Nightingale founded. Choice C
is also not the correct answer. The passage does not mention women doctors,
only women nurses. And choice D is incorrect because there is no indication in
the passage that the nurse’s training hospital that Nightingale founded was at
a university or that it was the first of its kind.
9. To answer this question, you must use
information contained in the passage to infer something about Nightingale’s
relationship with the British public of her day. The best answer is A. Lines
refer to Nightingale’s “heroic
reputation”; & to “nightingale’s place in the national pantheon”; and the para discusses her persuasiveness with the British
government and her fund-raising successes. From this information it can be
inferred that Nightingale was highly respected, as evidenced by both popular
and governmental support for her projects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect
for the same reason: each one refers to an element of social or governmental
opposition or resistance to Nightingale’s ideas, none of which is mentioned or
suggested by the passage. Choice E is also incorrect. The information in the
passage contradicts the notion that Nightingale was “quickly forgotten.” To
the contrary, the passage discusses the “famous British nurse Florence Nightingale”, her “heroic
reputation”, and her “place in the national pantheon” , as well as her “eminent
place among the ranks of social pioneers.”
10. The question asks you to draw a conclusion
about sanitary conditions in Britain after the Crimean War that is suggested,
rather than stated expressly, in the passage. The best answer is D. In the
second paragraph Nightingale’s efforts to reform sanitary conditions in Britain
are illustrated by her response to the death rate among enlisted men in British
barracks, which is described as unusually high relative to that of neighboring
civilian populations. From this it can be inferred that sanitary
conditions in the barracks were worse than in these civilian populations.
Choices A, B and C are incorrect: in each, a comparison is made between
sanitary conditions in post-war Britain and sanitary conditions elsewhere or at
other times. However, because the passage provides no basis on which to make
any of these comparisons, all three of these choices are incorrect. The passage
does not mention sanitary conditions “in other parts of the world,” as in
Choice A; “before the war,” as in choice B; or in “rural areas” as
compared with “urban centers”, as in choice C. Choice E is also incorrect, because the passage
provides no information about the general state of sanitary conditions
“throughout England”.
11. This question asks you to
select a statement about the two contrasting accounts of Nightingale’s
importance with which the author of the passage would be most likely to agree.
The best answer is C. In the last paragraph, the author concedes that “Nightingale may not have achieved all of her goals during the
Crimean War.” This is consistent with
Summers’ view that Nightingale’s importance during the war has been exaggerated
,but the author of the passage nonetheless describes Nightingale as a great
social pioneer because of her vision and achievements. These achievements,
which the second paragraph states occurred primarily after the Crimean War,
apparently did not influence Summers’ interpretation of Nightingale’s
importance. Given the author’s favorable assessment of Nightingale’s
reputation, it is likely that the author would agree that Summers’
interpretation ignores this important evidence. Choice A is not the correct
answer. Although, in the passage, the author concedes that Summers may be
correct in her assessment of Nightingale’s wartime achievements, nothing is
said in the passage about Summers’ discussion, if any, of Nightingale’s postwar
influence or activities. Choice B is also incorrect. The passage cites the
editors’ collection of Nightingale’s letters as evidence of Nightingale’s “brilliance and creativity.” In addition, in light of the author’s statement that
Nightingale has earned “an
eminent place among the ranks of social pioneers”,there is no reason to think the author would agree that the
editors exaggerated Nightingale’s influence on later generations. Choice D is
not the correct answer. In the last paragraph of the passage, the author refers
to Nightingale’s letters as evidence of her “brilliance and creativity” ,and as the basis for a conclusion that Nightingale has
earned “an eminent place among the
ranks of social pioneers” .It
is therefore highly unlikely that the author believes that the editors of these
letters have “mistakenly propagated” outdated notions or impeded a balanced assessment of
Nightingale’s role. Choice E is also incorrect. In the last paragraph of the
passage, the author states that “the
evidence of Nightingale’s letters supports continued respect for Nightingale’
brilliance and creativity.” Summers,
on the other hand, seeks in her book to “debunk”Nightingale’s “heroic reputation”.
Rather than supporting Summers’ conclusions about Nightingale, the evidence of
Nightingale’s letters contradicts them.
12. The best answer is A. In the last
paragraph of the passage, the author presents two examples of
Nightingale’s “brilliance and creativity.” In the first of these, the author compares Nightingale
to “a modern educator” for counseling a village schoolmaster to encourage
children’s powers of observation. The fact that the author believes that this
is evidence of Nightingale’s creativity suggests that it was unusual at that
time to emphasize developing children’s ability to observe. Choice B is not the
correct answer. Nightingale’s efforts to improve conditions in British military
barracks are not cited as evidence of her creativity, nor is it suggested that
Nightingale’s counseling a village schoolmaster, not enlisting schoolmasters’
help ;moreover, nothing in the passage suggests that educators had failed to
enlist such help prior to the incident the author describes. Choice D is
incorrect: although the author cites Nightingale’s contributions to the care of
the needy , the passage does not suggest that no organized help for the needy
existed before Nightingale began her work. And choice E is incorrect, because
although Nightingale’s cost-accounting system is presented in the passage as
having made a lasting contribution to the British Army’s medical services, the
passage never suggests that before Nightingale the Army lacked a
cost-accounting system.
13. This question asks you to identify the author’s
primary concern in the last paragraph of the passage. The best answer is D. In
the last paragraph, the author cites examples of Nightingale’s achievements to
support the author’s conclusion that Nightingale’s achievements to support the
Author’s conclusion that Nightingale is worthy of respect and has earned “an eminent place among the ranks of social pioneers” Choice A is incorrect. The third paragraph does not
summarize the arguments presented in the first two paragraphs. Choice B is also
not the correct answer: in the third paragraph, the author expresses essential
agreement with the positive view of Nightingale’s career described in the
second paragraph. Choice C is incorrect because in the last paragraph the
author does not analyze the weakness of any evidence cited elsewhere in the
passage. And choice E is not the correct answer because the author does not
correct any factual errors in the two works under review.
Next Set
Passage 1:
Theresa Kelley and Thomas Pfau
rehearse a debate- I would call it an anxiety-about Romanticism that has
inflected culture since its very inception: can the aesthetic, and our critical
engagement with the aesthetic, produce meaning that is, well, meaningful? The
question begs too many qualifications, of course, not least of which is the
often plaintive cry about the contingencies of predication; that is, meaning
for whom, for what, and why do we even bother about it in the first place? We
cannot predicate sure attributes of cultural purpose because, abstraction that
it is, owe end in circular claims about the meaning of meaning. We are not
quite circus animals chasing our respective tails, I hope, but this problem is
consistently played out in the domain of pleasure, or at least of affective
responsiveness. For surely we come to ask the question of cultural products
only at the point in which we are radically invested in them: we profess in the
domain of culture, and few professors in the humanities extricate their own
modes of self-understanding from their professional preoccupations.
The issue, that is, defines us
in banal ways too: after all the debates about the uses of pleasure, what can
be said about our status as professional critics and scholars? (This is partly
the issue that Thomas Pfau takes up polemically.) And must this question truly
be allied with the more conceptually difficult one about the place of affective
experience in aesthetic judgment? Both Pfau and Kelley are concerned to define
the place of the aesthetic within a judgment that comprehends a relation
between that which is meaningful for our interiority and that which is
meaningful from the perspective of the socially iterable. Kelley finds
reassurance in Hilary Putnam’s recent re-thinking of philosophical realism, in
which mind and world may be stitched together more thoroughly. But still more
questions arise. Does the potential solipsism necessarily inherent in any
aesthetic pleasure find a rapport, or a reciprocal production of meaning, with
the empirical world? If Romanticism has a grasp upon the actual (to recall F.R.
Leavis’s famous indictment of Shelley) that is not merely weak, how do the
actual and the pleasure of that aesthetic “grasp” signify to each other? These
are the questions that I hope a brief consideration of Romanticism and philosophy
in an historical age might open on to. The essays and counter-responses in this
volume represent works in progress by Kelley and Pfau, and we invite our
readers’ input into their respective polemics.
It was Foucault, of course, who
re-ignited interest in the question, “What is Enlightenment,” and the
questions, “what is maturity?” and “what is modernity?” followed quick on its
heels. But Foucault knew that the “aesthetics of existence” is interrogated
precisely in the service of establishing “an ontology of ourselves”, and the
historicist passage between them must comprehend also the minutiae of
expression. We need to know now what a mature reading in this
post-enlightenment age of deeply vexed modernity can possibly mean. The access
so vital to the final Foucault is an exercise of oneself; and if thought is an
activity that yields a “game of truth” by which one undergoes change, then
surely an interrogation of the technical “games” of poetics may be said to
speak to a vital aspect of human need. Kelley’s close analysis of
John Clare’s poetry is an instructive instance in this regard.
If poetic cadence, for example,
resonates-or more to the point, if what we believe about the allure of cadence
is that it answers to a rhythm essentially held within us-then we are, it is
true, treading on structuralist ground: poetics touches us at the level of
resonance sounding deep within us. But determining the historicity of formalist
norms (this is just one instance of a possible avenue of exploration) is still
fecund scholarly ground. What seems to have needlessly polarized the academy,
however, is the assumption that poetic resonance must be interpreted as either
ideological or, alternatively, structural in an essentialist, naively
psychologised manner. But again, how could a psychological resonance not be, at
least in some manner, participation within a dominant norm? Or at least, in
what arenas were such assumptions ever challenged? The genealogy of the
ideological ground of aesthetic compulsion still needs to take account of an
aesthetic history. In this volume, Pfau and Kelley respond to one another
partly in the terms of such issues (a response follows each essay). They help
us find a way into a cultural context that does not, as it were, forgive the
text merely its social determinations on the one hand, or fetishize its
historical contingencies on the other. In some respects, what they articulate
about Romanticism is nothing less than the uses (variously conceived) of its
pleasures.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
1) This passage could most
probably have been sourced from
a) A book written by Kelley and Pfau.
b) A debate on romanticism by Kelley and Pfau.
c) An article which talks about romanticism
and culture, and views of different people like Pfau, Kelly on romanticism.
d) A prelude to a composition which links
romanticism and philosophy in a historical age.
2)According to the author,
Kelley and Pfau wanted to establish which of the following things:
A) Characterise the position of aesthetic
within a judgement
B) How do the actual and the pleasure of that
aesthetic “Grasp” signify to each other
C)The uses of the pleasures of Romanticism
D)The place of Affective experience in
aesthetic judgement
a) A, B, C & D
b) A, B & C
c) A, B & D
d) A & C
3)Why does the author use the
statement “circus animals chasing our respective tails”
a) The author wants to emphasise that this is
a problem played out consistently in the domain of pleasure.
b) The author wants to emphasise that we are
facing a problem with a circular claim on the meaning of meaning.
c) The author wants to emphasise that this is
a problem played out at least in the domain of affective responsiveness.
d) Both a and c together.
4)Which of the following is
probably not true with respect to the passage?
a) Hilary Putnam supported Kelly’s Thought on
aesthetics
b) There were some authors who were
criticising Shelley’s thoughts
c) The author supports Kelly’s views of
aesthetics position.
d) None of the above
5)What is the main reason for
Poetic cadence dividing the academy?
a) Because Poetic cadence was interpreted as
structural in an essentialist manner
b) Because It answered to a rhythm essentially
within us.
c) Because it treaded on structuralist ground
it was assumed to be structural in a naive manner
d) None of the above
6) Who reignited the question
-“What is maturity?”
a) Kelly & Pfau in their book
b) Foucalt
c) John Clare
d) F.R. Leavis
Passage 2:
For the agent, however, reason
is the heart of the matter. And the heart of the matter is the reason for the
civitas, whether it is vocalized or not. What is at stake in what I do is the
kind of person I become. What is at stake in what we do is the kind of city we
inhabit. In both the individual and the social variation of that mantra,
familiar from virtue ethics, every action is the conclusion of a practical
syllogism; it carries with it an argument, and the argument underwrites both
character and civitas. The relationship is circular: character forms and is
formed by every action, and each action tends to confirm the character of the
agent. And the city forms and is formed by the characters it contains. When
Paine says that the long habit of not thinking a thing wrong creates the
superficial impression of its being right, he brings to our attention the fact
that the long habit of not thinking a thing wrong makes it unlikely that we
will think to change it. The shape of the city, like the shape of character, is
a counterweight to change. On the positive side, this makes cities and
characters relatively stable; and it gives us some idea what to expect of them
if we have been paying attention. On the negative side, this renders
characters and cities largely impervious to reason. Time makes more converts
than reason, but time also tends, for better or worse, to confirm reasons of
the heart that reason cannot know. What passes as stability may simply be
inertia.
Revolutionary theory turns on
this question: is it stability or is it inertia? Either way, change is–and
should be–difficult. For conservative theorists such as Burke, this translates
into gradualism. The civitas changes in the manner of an organism, maturing in
time and evolving across generations. Sudden change is the exception, not the
rule. And, to a large extent, revolutionary theorists agree. Jefferson felt
obliged to document a long pattern of abuse as justification for a single
violent act. David Walker, writing with Jefferson in mind and partly in response
to his Notes on the State of Virginia, followed the same pattern. Thoreau urged
readers to let the ordinary friction of civil society pass and reserve
disobedience for consistent affronts to human dignity. The African National
Congress documented centuries of abuse before turning to armed resistance.
Jefferson and Mao Zedong both asserted that every generation needed its own
revolution, but, even so, they agreed that every revolution required reason.
The whole world, for Jefferson, is a court before which the revolutionary has
to make a case. That the New Left in the United States took up this
Jeffersonian approach is reflected in its most simplified form by the chant
“the whole world is watching” that framed demonstrations in Chicago in 1968.
That the actions were (and are) called demonstrations suggests, at least, an
audience and something to be demonstrated. Both revolution and war are put
forward as rhetorical strategies within an argument that involves the world as
a whole. Drawing the whole world into every act of violence may partly explain
why “local” wars and revolutions have escalated into global conflicts. But my
point here is to focus on rhetorical strategy in the context of an argument.
Thoreau was convinced that no act was rhetorically insignificant, and both
Gandhi and King followed him in this. The most revolutionary act in Gandhi’s
account was spinning the thread with which to make the clothes one wore. And
this is critical to civil disobedience as a rhetorical strategy.
One common thread in rational
justifications for war and revolution is the documentation of violence and
abuse against which war or revolution is a reaction. War and revolution are
invariably depicted as last resorts: they are justified when there is nothing
else to be done. This is hardly surprising, since the strongest argument
demonstrates a necessary conclusion. If the conclusion is necessary, then
disagreement with it is nonsensical.
In this regard, civil
disobedience is a promising variation on a theme that includes the perpetual
revolutions of Jefferson and Mao. Perpetual revolution suggests that no
revolution is a conclusion: as a step in an argument, it can never be more than
provisional. If resort to violence can be justified only by necessity, then it
can never be justified. More to the point, it can never be more than
provisionally justified. The rhetorical question (and, contrary to popular
usage, there is no more important question to ask) is “what next?” Mao and
Jefferson suspected that revolution led to revolution. As good revolutionaries,
they went into this with their eyes open (at their best) and never let the
revolutionary flame die down. In this regard, Tom Paine and Che Guevara were
more consistent revolutionaries. But Thoreau was perhaps the most consistent
revolutionary of all. Rather than fanning a revolutionary flame, he maintained
that every act is part of a political argument. Compliance justifies the
political context within which it takes place. Noncompliance undermines it. But
while noncompliance undermines the political context within which it takes
place, it implies another political context. Consciously and unconsciously,
intentionally and unintentionally, it imagines and cultivates another political
context. The constitution of the civitas is the ensemble of actions undertaken
by those who inhabit it.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
7) According to the author,
what is the final outcome of a perpetual revolution included in civil
disobedience?
a) Perpetual revolution led to another
revolution as it suggests that Revolution is not a conclusion.
b) The visualization and Nurturing of a new
political framework.
c) Perpetual revolution led to another
revolution as it suggests that Revolution can never be more than provisionally
justified.
d) Both a & c
8) Which of the following
examples, if true, closely parallels one of the arguments brought about in the
first paragraph of the passage?
a) Sachin has never got out to a short ball.
So he thinks he has the right technique to handle short balls and doesn’t want
to change it.
b) Dhoni has never missed a stumping while
keeping. So he believes that his stance while keeping is correct.
c) Murali has never been called for illegal
action by umpires. So he doesn’t want to change his legal action now.
d) Dickie bird has never given a wrong
decision. So he sees no reason in changing his decision making process.
9)With which of the following
argument is the author non committal in the entire passage?
a) Revolution and war are put forward as
rhetorical strategies within an argument
b) Sudden change is not a law but an exemption
c) Perpetual revolution is not a conclusion
but a step in the argument
d) Local wars and revolutions escalating into
global conflicts.
10)The following statements
find support from the lines in the passage except
a) David Walker, a revolutionary like
Jefferson agreed with the views of Jefferson
b) Thoreau, the most consistent revolutionary,
urged people to reserve disobedience for consistent affronts to human dignity
c) Mao and Jefferson were good revolutionaries
who never let the revolutionary flame die down.
d) Since war and revolution was deemed as a
necessary conclusion to end violence and abuse disagreement with it was
nonsensical.
Passage 3:
Writers’ invisibility has
little or nothing to do with Fame, just as Fame has little or nothing to do
with Literature. (Fame merits its capital F for its fickleness, Literature its
capital L for its lastingness.) Thespians, celebrities and politicians, whose appetite
for bottomless draughts of public acclaim, much of it manufactured, is beyond
any normal measure, may feed hotly on Fame – but Fame is always a product of
the present culture: topical and variable, hence ephemeral. Writers are made
otherwise. What writers’ prize is simpler, quieter and more enduring than
clamorous Fame: it is recognition. Fame, by and large, is an accountant’s
category, tallied in Amazonian sales. Recognition, hushed and inherent in the
silence of the page, is a reader’s category: its stealth is its wealth. And
recognition itself can be fragile, a light too easily shuttered. Recall Henry
James’s lamentation over his culminating New York Edition, with its considered
revisions and invaluable prefaces: the mammoth work of a lifetime unheralded,
unread, and unsold. That all this came to be munificently reversed is of no
moment: the denizens of Parnassus are deaf to after-the-fact earthly notice;
belatedness does them no good. Nothing is more poisonous to steady recognition
than death: how often is a writer – lauded, fêted, bemedalled – plummeted into
eclipse no more than a year or two after the final departure? Who nowadays
speaks of Bernard Malamud, once a diadem in the grand American trinity of
Bellow-Roth-Malamud? Who thinks of Lionel Trilling, except with dismissive
commemorative contempt? Already Norman Mailer is a distant unregretted noise
and William Styron a mote in the middle distance (a phrase the nearly forgotten
Max Beerbohm applied to the fading Henry James). As for poor befuddled mystical
Jack Kerouac and declamatory fiddle-strumming mystical Allen Ginsberg, both are
diminished to Documents of an Era: the stale turf of social historians and
tedious professors of cultural studies. Yet these eruptions of sudden mufflings
and posthumous silences must be ranked entirely apart from the forced muteness
of living writers who work in minority languages, away from the klieg lights of
the lingua franca, and whose oeuvres linger too often untranslated. The
invisibility of recently dead writers is one thing, and can even, in certain
cases (I would be pleased to name a few), bring relief; but the invisibility of
the living is a different matter altogether, crucial to literary continuity.
Political shunning – of writers who are made invisible, and also inaudible, by
repressive design – results in what might be called public invisibility, rooted
in external circumstance: the thuggish prejudices of gangsters who run rotted
regimes, the vengeful prejudices of corrupt academics who propose intellectual
boycotts, the shallow prejudices of the publishing lords of the currently
dominant languages, and finally (reductio ad absurdum!) the ideologically
narrow prejudices of some magazine editors. All these are rampant and
scandalous and undermining of free expression. But what of an intrinsic,
delicate and far more ubiquitous private invisibility? Vladimir Nabokov was
once an invisible writer suffering from three of these unhappy conditions: the
public, the private, and the linguistic. As an émigré fleeing the Bolshevik
upheavals, and later as a refugee from the Nazis, he escaped the 20th century’s
two great tyrannies. And as an émigré writing in Russian in Berlin and Paris,
he remained invisible to nearly all but his exiled compatriots. Only on his
arrival in America did the marginalising term “émigré” begin to vanish,
replaced first by citizen and ultimately by American writer – since it was in
America that the invisible became invincible. But Brian Boyd, in his intimate
yet panoramic biography, recounts the difficulties, even in welcoming America,
of invisible ink’s turning visible – not only in the protracted struggle for
the publication of Lolita, but in the most liberal of literary journals.
And here at last is the crux:
writers are hidden beings. You have never met one – or, if you should ever
believe you are seeing a writer, or having an argument with a writer, or
listening to a talk by a writer, then you can be sure it is all a mistake.
Inevitably, we are returned to Henry James, who long ago unriddled the
conundrum of writers’ invisibility. In a story called “The Private Life”, Clare
Vawdrey, a writer burdened by one of those peculiar Jamesian names (rhyming
perhaps not accidentally with “tawdry”), is visible everywhere in every
conceivable social situation. He is always available for a conversation or a
stroll, always accessible, always pleasantly anecdotal, never remote or
preoccupied. He has a light-minded bourgeois affability: “He talks, he
circulates,” James’s narrator informs us, “he’s awfully popular, he flirts with
you.” His work, as it happens, is the very opposite of his visible character:
it is steeped in unalloyed greatness. One evening, while Vawdrey is loitering
outdoors on a terrace, exchanging banalities with a companion, the narrator steals
into Vawdrey’s room – only to discover him seated at his writing table in the
dark, feverishly driving his pen. Since it is physically impossible for a
material body to be in two places simultaneously, the narrator concludes that
the social Vawdrey is a phantom, while the writer working in the dark is the
real Vawdrey. “One is the genius,” he explains, “the other’s the bourgeois, and
it’s only the bourgeois whom we personally know.”
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
11) Which of the following is
best exemplified by the character Vawdrey in the passage?
(a) Light-minded bourgeois affability.
(b) Vawdrey is the answer to the writers’
invisibility.
(c) The fact that a writer is the opposite of
his perceptible character.
(d) The premise that the writer is an
apparition.
(e) The truth that the writer is a brain.
12) According to the passage,
the two tyrannies escaped by Nabokov were:
(a) That he was an invisible writer and
suffered linguistic problems.
(b) That he fled from the Bolshevik revolution
and the Nazi turmoil
(c) That he was welcomed in America but also
suffered a rejection.
(d) That his invisibility extended to all and
the fact that he wrote in Russian.
(e) That as he began as an émigré and was
replaced gradually as an American writer.
13) What, according to the
author, is the reason for the invisibility of the living?
a) It hampers literary continuity.
b) The living are shy of the arc lights.
c) Their work is not worthy of consideration.
d) The language is difficult to follow.
e) They are victims of parochialism.
14) The significance of
admiration for writers is dissimilar from that of celebrities and politicians
because
(a) Fame is transient.
(b) Fame offers immeasurable public
approbation.
(c) Writers look for deeper recognition.
(d) Fame is clamorous.
(e) Furtiveness is what the writers prefer
Solutions
1. Option (d)
The key to this question lies in the last 3 lines of the first paragraph “These
are the questions that I hope a brief consideration of Romanticism and
philosophy in an historical age might open on to. The essays and
counter-responses in this volume represent works in progress by Kelly and Pfau,
and we invite our readers’ input into their respective polemics.”
2. Option (d)
The question asks about the opinions of Kelly and Pfau. In the first paragraph
look at the line “Both Pfau and Kelley are concerned to define the place ofthe
aesthetic within a judgment ” .Also the last line of last paragraph states that
“In some respects, what they articulate about Romanticism is nothing less than
the uses (variously
conceived) of its pleasures” These statements are brought in A) and C). Both B)
and C)
are the views of the author.
3. Option (b)
Please look at these lines in the first paragraph “we end in
circular claims about the meaning of meaning. We are not
quite circus animals chasing our respective tails” .This
clearly gives the answer to the question. All the other 3
options are junk answers.
4. Option (c)
Option (a) is wrong because of this line in the passage “Kelly finds
reassurance in Hilary Putnam’s recent re-thinking of philosophical realism”
Option (b) is wrong because of this line in the passage “This is partly the
issue that Thomas Pfau takes up polemically.” This indicates that some people/
authors were against Pfau’s thoughts. Option (c) does not find support in the
passage. Look at the line “But still more questions arise. Does the potential
solipsism necessarily inherent in any aesthetic pleasure find a rapport, or a
reciprocal production of meaning, with the empirical world? If Romanticism has
a grasp upon the actual that is not merely weak, how do the actual and the
pleasure of that aesthetic “grasp” signify to each other? ” It looks as if the
author doesn’t fully agree with Kelly’s thoughts.
5. Option (c)
The first reason is that poetic cadence
treaded on structuralist ground which made many academicians to believe that it
was structural. Look at these lines “it is true, treading on structuralist
ground:” and ” is the assumption that poetic resonance must be interpreted as
either ideological or, alternatively, structural in an essentialist, naively
psychologised manner”. All the other answers are not complete.
6. Option (b)
Direct question from the first para.
7.Option (b)
Look at these lines from the last paragraph
“civil disobedience is a promising variation on theme that includes the
perpetual revolutions ” and “Consciously and unconsciously, intentionally and
unintentionally, it imagines and cultivates another political context” The
question is what is the final outcome of a perpetual revolution.It finally
creates a new political context.
So, the option (b) is correct. All the other answer options are the
intermediate
conclusions and not the final outcome.
8. Option (c)
This question is with reference with the line
“When Paine says that the long habit of not thinking a thing wrong creates the
superficial impression of its being right, he brings to our attention the fact
that the long habit of not thinking a thing wrong makes it unlikely that we
will think to change it.”
So there are 2 consequences of not thinking a thing wrong
1) You think you are right
2) You are unlikely to change
Murali thinks his action is legal and he doesn’t want to change .Only option c)
illustrates both the consequences.
9. Option (d)
Look at this line in the passage “Drawing the whole world into every act of
violence may partly explain why “local” wars and revolutions have escalated
into global conflicts.
But my point here is to focus on rhetorical strategy in the context of an
argument.”
The author himself doesn’t want to comment on option (D). Every other option is
discussed in the passage by the author with examples.
10. Option (a)
The author doesn’t state anywhere that David walker is a revolutionary. The
only thing the author states is “David Walker, writing with Jefferson in mind
and partly in response to his Notes on the State of Virginia, followed the same
pattern”.
11. Option (c)
The last paragraph that talks about Vawdrey emphasizes the fact that the
writer’s work is steeped in greatness and people get to know of only the outer
layer, the real personality of the writers comes through only in their work.
This is represented only in option (c). Option (a) talks only about one side of
the writer’s character and hence cannot be the answer. Option (b) also
talks about only one side of the character. Option (d) does not make any sense.
Option (c) is the correct answer.
12. Option (b)
The passage mentions that Nabokov escaped the 20th century’s greatest tyrannies
which were the Bolshevik upheavals and the Nazi persecution.
13. Option (e)
Refer to para 3 where the author feels that the invisibility stems from varied
prejudices.
14. Option (c)
Option (c) can be easily inferred from para 1.
Next Set
Passage 1:
A meteor stream is composed of
dust particles that have been ejected from a parent comet at a variety of
velocities. These particles follow the same orbit as the parent comet, but due
to their differing velocities they slowly gain on or fall behind the
disintegrating comet until a shroud of dust surrounds the entire cometary
orbit. Astronomers have hypothesized that a meteor stream should broaden with
time as the dust particles’ individual orbits are perturbed by planetary
gravitational fields. A recent computer-modeling experiment tested this
hypothesis by tracking the influence of planetary gravitation over a projected
5,000-year period on the positions of a group of hypothetical dust particles.
In the model, the particles were randomly distributed throughout a computer
simulation of the orbit of an actual meteor stream, the Geminid. The researcher
found, as expected, that the computer-model stream broadened with time.
Conventional theories, however, predicted that the distribution of particles
would be increasingly dense toward the center of a meteor stream. Surprisingly,
the computer-model meteor stream gradually came to resemble a thick-walled,
hollow pipe.
Whenever the Earth passes
through a meteor stream, a meteor shower occurs. Moving at a little over
1,500,000 miles per day around its orbit, the Earth would take, on average,
just over a day to cross the hollow computer-model Geminid stream if the stream
were 5,000 years old. Two brief periods of peak meteor activity during the
shower would be observed, one as the Earth entered the thick-walled “pipe” and
one as it exited. There is no reason why the Earth should always pass through
the stream’s exact center, so the time interval between the two bursts of
activity would vary from one year to the next. Has the predicted twin-peaked
activity been observed for the actual yearly Geminid meteor shower? The Geminid
data between 1970 and 1979 show just such a bifurcation, a secondary burst of
meteor activity being clearly visible at an average of 19 horse (1,200,000
miles) after the first burst.
The time intervals between the
bursts suggest the actual Geminid stream is about 3,000 years old.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
1. The primary focus of the
passage is on which of the following?
(A) Comparing two scientific
theories and contrasting the predictions that each would make concerning a
natural phenomenon
(B) Describing a new
theoretical model and noting that it explains the nature of observations made
of a particular natural phenomenon
(C) Evaluating the results of a
particular scientific experiment and suggesting further areas for research
(D) Explaining how two
different natural phenomena are related and demonstrating a way to measure them
(E) Analyzing recent data
derived from observations of an actual phenomenon and constructing a model to
explain the data
2. According to the passage,
which of the following is an accurate statement concerning meteor streams?
(A) Meteor streams and comets
start out with similar orbits, but only those of meteor streams are perturbed
by planetary gravitation.
(B) Meteor streams grow as dust
particles are attracted by the gravitational fields of comets.
(C) Meteor streams are composed
of dust particles derived from comets.
(D) Comets may be composed of
several kinds of materials, while meteor streams consist only of large dust
particles.
(E) Once formed, meteor streams
hasten the further disintegration of comets.
3. The author states that the
research described in the first paragraph was undertaken in order to
(A) determine the age of an
actual meteor stream
(B) Identify the various
structural features of meteor streams
(C) explore the nature of a
particularly interesting meteor stream
(D) test the hypothesis that
meteor streams become broader as they age
(E) show that a computer model
could help in explaining actual astronomical data
4. It can be inferred from the
passage that which of the following would most probably be observed during the
Earth’s passage through a meteor stream if the conventional theories mentioned
in line 18 were
(A) Meteor activity would
gradually increase to a single, intense peak, and then gradually decline.
(B) Meteor activity would be
steady throughout the period of the meteor shower.
(C) Meteor activity would rise
to a peak at the beginning and at the end of the meteor shower.
(D) Random bursts of very high
meteor activity would be interspersed with periods of very little activity.
(E) In years in which the Earth
passed through only the outer areas of a meteor stream, meteor activity would
be absent.
5. According to the passage,
why do the dust particles in a meteor stream eventually surround a comet’s
original orbit?
(A) They are ejected by the
comet at differing velocities.
(B) Their orbits are
uncontrolled by planetary gravitational fields.
(C) They become part of the
meteor stream at different times.
(D) Their velocity slows over
time.
(E) Their ejection velocity is
slower than that of the comet.
6. The passage suggests that
which of the following is a prediction concerning meteor streams that can be
derived from both the conventional theories mentioned in line 18 and the new
computer-derived theory?
(A) Dust particles in a meteor
stream will usually be distributed evenly throughout any cross section of the
steam.
(B) The orbits of most meteor
streams should cross the orbit of the Earth at some point and give rise to a
meteor shower.
(C) Over time the distribution
of dust in a meteor stream will usually become denser at the outside edges of
the stream than at the center.
(D) Meteor showers caused by
older by older meteor streams should be, on average, longer in duration than
those caused by very young meteor streams.
(E) The individual dust
particles in older meteor streams should be, on average, smaller than those
that compose younger meteor streams.
7. It can be inferred from the
last paragraph of the passage that which of the following must be true of the
Earth as it orbits the Sun?
(A) Most meteor streams it
encounters are more than 2,000 years old.
(B) When passing through a
meteor stream, it usually passes near to the stream’s center.
(C) It crosses the Geminid
meteor stream once every year.
(D) It usually takes over a day
to cross the actual Geminid meteor stream.
(E) It accounts of most of the
gravitational perturbation affecting the Geminid meteor stream.
8. Which of the following is an
assumption underlying the last sentence of the passage?
(A) In each of the years
between 1970 and 1979, the Earth took exactly 19 hours to cross the Geminid
meteor stream.
(B) The comet associated with
the Geminid meteor stream has totally disintegrated.
(C) The Geminid meteor stream
should continue to exist for at least 5,000 years.
(D) The Geminid meteor stream
has not broadened as rapidly as the conventional theories would have predicted.
(E) The computer-model Geminid
meteor stream provides an accurate representation of the development of the
actual Geminid stream.
Passage 2:
Most large corporations in the
United States were once run by individual capitalists who owned enough stock to
dominate the board of directors and dictate company policy. Because putting
such large amounts of stock on the market would only depress its value, they
could not sell out for a quick profit and instead had to concentrate on
improving the long-term productivity of their companies. Today, with few
exceptions, the stock of large United States corporations is held by large
institutions-pension funds, for example-and because these institutions are
prohibited by antitrust laws from owning a majority of a company’s stock and
from actively influencing a company’s decision-making, they can enhance their
wealth only by buying and selling stock in anticipation of fluctuations in its
value. A minority shareholder is necessarily a short term trader. As a result,
United States productivity is unlikely to improve unless shareholders and the
managers of the companies in which they invest are encouraged to enhance
long-term productivity (and hence long-term profitability), rather than simply
to maximize short term profits. Since the return of the old-style capitalist is
unlikely, today’s short-term traders must be remade into tomorrow’s long-term
capitalistic investors. The legal limits that now prevent financial
institutions from acquiring a dominant shareholding position in a corporation
should be removed, and such institutions should be encouraged to take a more
active role in the operations of the companies in which they invest. *In
addition, any institution that holds twenty percent or more of a company’s
stock should be forced to give the public one day’s notice of the intent to
sell those shares. Unless the announced sale could be explained to the public
on grounds other than anticipated future losses, the value of the stock would
plummet and, like the **old-time capitalists, major investors could cut their
losses only by helping to restore their companies’ productivity. Such measures
would force financial institutions to become capitalists whose success depends
not on trading shares at the propitious moment, but on increasing the
productivity of the companies in which they invest.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
9. In the passage, the author
is primarily concerned with doing which of the following?
(A) Comparing two different
approaches to a problem
(B) Describing a problem and
proposing a solution
(C) Defending an established
method
(D) Presenting data and drawing
conclusions from the data
(E) Comparing two different
analyses of a current situation
10. It can be inferred from the
passage that which of the following is true of majority shareholders in a
corporation?
(A) They make the corporation’s
operational management decisions.
(B) They are not allowed to own
more than fifty percent of the corporation’s stock.
(C) They cannot make quick
profits by selling their stock in the corporation.
(D) They are more interested in
profits than in productivity.
(E) They cannot sell any of
their stock in the corporation without giving the public advance notice.
11. According to the passage,
the purpose of the requirement suggested in lines * would be which of the
following?
(A) To encourage institutional
stockholders to sell stock that they believe will decrease in value
(B) To discourage institutional
stockholders from intervening in the operation of a company whose stock they
own
(C) To discourage short-term
profit-taking by institutional stockholders
(D) To encourage a company’s
employees to take an active role in the ownership of stock in the company
(E) To encourage investors to
diversify their stock holdings
12. The author suggests that
which of the following is a true statement about people who typify the “old
style capitalist” referred to in line**?
(A) They now rely on outdated
management techniques.
(B) They seldom engaged in
short-term trading of the stock they owned.
(C) They did not influence the
investment policies of the corporations in which they invested.
(D) They now play a much
smaller role in the stock market as a result of antitrust legislation.
(E) They were primarily
concerned with maximizing the short-term profitability of the corporations in
which they owned stock.
13. It can be inferred that the
author makes which of the following assumptions about the businesses once
controlled by individual capitalists?
(A) These businesses were less
profitable than are businesses today.
(B) Improving long-term
productivity led to increased profits.
(C) Each business had only a
few stockholders.
(D) There was no short-term
trading in the stock of these businesses.
(E) Institutions owned no stock
in these companies.
14. The author suggests that
the role of large institutions as stockholders differs from that of the
“old-style capitalist” in part because large institutions
(A) invest in the stock of so
many companies that they cannot focus attention on the affairs of any single
corporation
(B) are prohibited by law from
owning a majority of a corporation’s stock
(C) are influenced by brokers
who advise against long-term ownership of stocks
(D) are able to put large
amounts of stock on the market without depressing the stock’s value
(E) are attracted to the stocks
of corporations that demonstrate long-term gains in productivity
15. The primary function of the
second paragraph of the passage is to
(A) identify problems
(B) warn of consequence
(C) explain effects
(D) evaluate solutions
(E) recommend actions
Passage 3:
The
pleiotropy of the five well-studies plant hormones is somewhat analogous to
that of certain hormones in animals”
Traditionally, the first firm
to commercialize a new technology has benefited from the unique opportunity to
shape product definitions, forcing followers to adapt to a standard or invest
in an unproven alternative. Today, however, the largest payoffs may go to
companies that lead in developing integrated approaches for successful mass
production and distribution.
Producers of the Beta format
for videocassette recorders (VCR’s), for example, were first to develop the VCR
commercially in 1975, but producers of the rival VHS (Video Home System) format
proved to be more successful at forming strategic alliances with other
producers and distributors to manufacture and market their VCR format Seeking
to maintain exclusive control over VCR distribution. Beta producers were
reluctant to form such alliances and eventually lost ground to VHS in the
competition for the global VCR market.
Despite Beta’s substantial
technological head start and the fact that VHS was neither technically better
nor cheaper than Beta, developers of VHS quickly turned a slight early lead in
sales into a dominant position. Strategic alignments with producers of
prerecorded tapes reinforced the VHS advantage. The perception among consumers
that prerecorded tapes were more available in VHS format further expanded VHS’s
share of the market. By the end of the 1980’s. Beta was no longer in
production.
Based on
the Passage, answer the following questions:
16. The passage is primarily
concerned with which of the following?
(A) Evaluating two competing
technologies
(B) Tracing the impact of a new
technology by narrating a sequence of events
(C) Reinterpreting an event
from contemporary business history
(D) illustrating a business
strategy by means of a case history
(E) Proposing an innovative
approach to business planning
17. According to the passage,
today’s successful firms, unlike successful firms in the past, may earn the
greatest profits by
(A) investing in research to
produce cheaper versions of existing technology
(B) being the first to market a
competing technology
(C) adapting rapidly to a
technological standard previously set by a competing firm
(D) establishing technological
leadership in order to shape product definitions in advance of competing firms.
(E) emphasizing the development
of methods for the mass production and distribution of a new technology.
18. According to the passage,
consumers began to develop a preference for VCR’s in the VHS format because
they believed which of the following?
(A) VCR’s in the VHS format
were technically better than competing-format VCR’s.
(B) VCR’s in the VHS format
were less expensive than competing-format VCR’s.
(C) VHS was the first standard
format for VCR’s.
(D) VHS prerecorded videotapes
were more available than Beta-format tapes.
(E) VCR’s in the Beta format
would soon cease to be produced.
19. The author implies that one
way that VHS producers won control over the VCR market was by
(A) carefully restricting
access to VCR technology
(B) giving up a slight early
lead in VCR sales in order to improve long-term prospects.
(C) retaining a strict monopoly
on the production of prerecorded videotapes.
(D) Sharing control of the
marketing of VHS-format VCR’s
(E) Sacrificing technological
superiority over Beta format VCR’s in order to remain competitive in price.
20. The alignment of producers
of VHS-format VCR’s with producers of prerecorded videotapes is most similar to
which of the following?
(A) The alignment of an
automobile manufacturer with another automobile manufacturer to adopt a
standard design for automobile engines.
(B) The alignment of an
automobile manufacturer with an automotive glass company whereby the
manufacturer agrees to purchase automobile windshields only from that one glass
company
(C) The alignment of an
automobile manufacturer with a petroleum company to ensure the widespread
availability of the fuel required by a new type of engine developed by the
manufacturer.
(D) The alignment of an
automobile manufacturer with its dealers to adopt a plan to improve automobile
design.
(E) The alignment of an
automobile dealer with an automobile rental chain to adopt a strategy for an
advertising campaign to promote a new type of automobile
21. Which of the following best
describes the relation of the first paragraph to the passage as a whole?
(A) It makes a general
observation to be exemplified.
(B) It outlines a process to be
analyzed.
(C) It poses a question to be
answered.
(D) It advances an argument to
be disputed.
(E) It introduces conflicting
arguments to be reconciled.
Solutions
1. This question asks you to identify the primary focus of the
passage. The best answer is B. The author describes the new theoretical model
in the first paragraph; in the final paragraph the author states that the data
obtained from actual observations, which are discussed in the second and third
paragraphs, is consistent with the new theoretical model. Choice A is not
correct; the computer model confirmed the astronomers’ hypothesis that meteor
streams broaden with time, and although the model yielded an unexpected result,
the passage does not contrast the predictions yielded by competing theories.
Choice C and D are not correct because the passage makes no reference to
further areas for research, and only a single phenomenon is described in the
passage. And choice E is not correct because it reverses the order of events.
The model yielded a prediction that was subsequently confirmed by observational
data, the model was not constructed to explain the data.
2. This question asks you to identify an accurate statement about
meteor streams. Choice C, the best answer, restates information about the
composition of meteor streams from the first sentence of the passage. Choice A
is not correct. The passage discusses the influence of planetary gravitation on
meteor streams but says nothing about its influence on the orbits of comets.
According to the passage, it is planetary gravitation, not the gravitational fields
of comets, that causes meteor streams to increase in size, so choice B is not
correct. And choice D and E are not correct answers because the passage says
nothing about the composition of comets or the role that meteor streams play in
their further disintegration.
3. This question asks what the author says about the purpose of
the research described in the first paragraph. The best answer is D. According
to the author, the purpose of the computer-modeling experiment was to test the
hypothesis that meteor streams broaden with time. Choice A is not correct;
although the observational data described in the last paragraph allowed
scientists to estimate the age of the Geminid stream, this data was analyzed to
confirm a surprising prediction made by the computer model. This analysis was
not part of the original experiment. Choice B is also incorrect. Although the
experiment yielded a surprising prediction about a particular feature of meteor
streams, the purpose of the experiment was to determine whether meteor streams
broaden with time, not to identify the various structural features of meteor
streams. Choice C is not correct because the experiment was undertaken to test
a general hypothesis about meteor streams. It was not undertaken to explore the
nature of any particular meteor stream, and the passage never suggests that the
actual meteor streams used in the computer model was “particularly
interesting.” Choice E is not correct. Although the computer model did confirm
the astronomers’ hypothesis, the purpose of the experiment was not to show that
such models are useful.
4. This question asks you to make an inference about what would most
probably be observed during the Earth’s passage through a meteor stream if the
conventional theories mentioned in the passage were correct. According to line
18-20, the conventional theories predicted that the meteor stream would be most
dense at the center. The computer model, one the other hand, predicted that a
meteor stream would come to resemble a thick-walled, hollow pipe.The passage
states that, if the computer model were correct, two peak periods of meteor
activity would be observed as the Earth passed through the walls of the “pipe”
. According to the passage, observational data confirmed the prediction of the computer
model. If, on the other hand, the conventional theories were correct, it can be
inferred that a bifurcation of meteor activity would not be observed; instead,
it can be inferred that scientists would expect to observe a single peak of
meteor activity as the Earth passed through the dense center of the stream.
Choice A identifies this single peak of activity as the most likely
observation if the conventional theories were correct. Choice B and D are not
correct because they describe meteor activity that is either steady or erratic,
neither of which is consistent with the conventional theories. Choice C
describes meteor activity more in line with the bifurcation predicted by the
computer model, rather than the single peak of activity that the conventional
theories would suggest. Choice E is incorrect because the passage says that
meteor showers occur whenever the Earth passes through a meteor stream; it
cannot be inferred that either theory would predict otherwise.
5. This question asks for the reason given in the passage for a
characteristic feature of meteor streams. According to the passage, the dust
particles in a meteor stream eventually surround a comet’s original orbit
because of the different velocities at which they are ejected, as stated in choice
A, the best answer. Choice B is directly contradicted by information in the
passage .The other answer choices re incorrect because the passage does not say
that the dust particles become part of the meteor stream at different times, or
that their velocity slows over time, or that their ejection velocity is slower
than that of the comet.
6. This question asks you to identify a prediction that can be
derived from both the conventional theories about meteor streams and the new
computer-derived model. You must base your answer on information that is
suggested by, but not expressly stated in, the passage. According to the
passage, the conventional theories hypothesized that meteor streams should
broaden with time, and the computer simulation confirmed this hypothesis. The
passage also suggests that the time it takes for the Earth to cross a meteor
stream (and, by implication, the duration of the resulting meteor shower) is
directly related to the breadth of the stream. From these pieces of
information, which are supported by both the conventional theories and the new
computer-derived theory, it can be inferred that on average the meteor showers
caused by older (and therefore broader) meteor streams would be longer in
duration than those caused by very young (and therefore narrower) meteor
streams, as stated in D, the best answer. Choice A is incorrect because it
contradicts the predictions of both the conventional theories (that the
particles will be most dense at the center of the stream) and the computer model
(that the stream will resemble a thick-walled, hollow pipe). Choice C is also
incorrect because it is inconsistent with the conventional theories that
suggested the distribution of dust in a meteor stream is denser at the center.
And choices B and E are incorrect because the theories discussed in the passage
do not suggest anything about the likelihood that the Earth’s orbit will cross
that of any particular meteor stream, nor do they suggest anything about the
size of the dust particles that compose meteor streams.
7. This question asks you to draw an inference from information in
the last paragraph of the passage. The best answer is C. According to the
passage, the Geminid meteor shower occurs yearly; because meteor showers occur
whenever the Earth passes through a meteor stream, one can infer that the Earth
crosses the Geminid stream once every year. Choice A is incorrect because the
passage provides no information from which to generalize about the age of
meteor streams. Choice B, which is directly contradicted by the passage, is
also incorrect. Choice D is incorrect. The passage says that the Earth would
take just over a day to cross the stream if the stream were 5,000 years old.
However, in the next few lines the passage states that in fact an average of
only 19 houses elapsed between the time that the Earth entered the stream until
the time that it exited, leading researchers to conclude that the stream is
only about 3,000 years old. Choice E is incorrect because the passage says only
that planetary gravitational fields perturb the orbits of dust particles in a
meteor stream; it does not say that the effect of the Earth’s gravitation is
greater than that of other planets.
8. This question asks you to identify an assumption underlying the
last sentence of the passage. In this sentence, the author of the passage draws
a conclusion about the age of the Geminid stream. This conclusion is based on
two pieces of information. The first is the length of time the Earth would take
to cross the computer-model Geminid stream if the stream were 5,000 years old.
The second is the actual elapsed time between the two peaks of meteor activity
predicted by the computer model .In concluding from this information that the
Geminid stream is actually only 3,000 years old, the author is assuming the
accuracy of the computer model, as stated in E, the best answer. Choice A is
incorrect because the passage says that the time the Earth takes to cross the
stream would vary from year to year and that 19 hours was the average time, not
the exact time, observed from 1970 to 1979. Choices B and C are incorrect
because the passage does not suggest anything about the current state of the
comet associated with the Geminid stream or about the expected longevity of the
stream. Choices D is incorrect because the computer model is said to confirm
the broadening predicted by the conventional theories; the fact that the model
projected the positions of the particles in the stream over a 5,000-year period
does not suggest that researchers expected the stream to be older (and
therefore broader) than it turned out to be.
9. This question asks you to determine the main task that the
passage is designed to accomplish. The best answer is B. The passage identifies
a problem (shareholder’ and manager’ failure to enhance companies’ long-term
productivity) in the first paragraph, most pointedly in the last sentence of
that paragraph. In the second paragraph, the author recommends certain actions
as a means of solving that problem. Choice A is not correct. The author of the
passage identifies a problem in the first paragraph, but the author does not
compare two different approaches to that problem. Rather, in the second
paragraph, the author proposes a single, unified approach to solving the problem.
Choice C is incorrect. The author does not defend an established method of
institutional shareholding in the United States and recommends a different
method in the second paragraph. Choice D is also incorrect. The author
describes a situation in the first paragraph but does not provide data or draw
any conclusions from data. Choice E is not the correct answer. The author does
not compare alternative analyses of the current situation discussed in the
passage.
10. This question asks you to decide what the passage implies, rather
than states directly, about majority shareholders in a corporation. The best
answer is C. According to the passage, those individual capitalists who were
once majority shareholders in a corporation would not be able to make a quick
profit by selling a large amount of stock because such a sale would depress the
stock’s value. It can be inferred from the passage that this would be true of
any majority shareholders. Choice A is not the correct answer. The passage
suggests, that majority shareholders can actively influence a company’s
decision-making, but it does not suggest that this influence is equal to the
absolute authority suggested by the language of this answer choice. The passage
also does not discuss the “operational management decisions” of corporations.
Choice B is not correct. The passage does not specify what percent of a
corporation’s stock any one shareholder is allowed to own. Choice D is not the
correct answer. The author does not imply that majority shareholders are more
interested in profits than in productivity. In fact, the author argues the
opposite, stating that majority shareholders such as the old-style capitalists
concentrated more on long-term productivity than on quick profits. Choice E is
also incorrect. The author proposes that shareholders of more than 20 percent
of a company’s stock should be required to give advance public notice before a
stock sale, but the passage does not suggest that majority shareholders are
currently required to do so.
11. This question asks you to identify the stated purpose of the
author’s suggestion that any institution holding 20 percent or more of a
corporation’s stock be required to give the public one day’s notice of the
intent to sell that stock. The best answer is C. The purpose of the requirement
that institutions holding 20 percent or more of a company’s stock be required
to give advance public notice of the sale of that stock is stated :to prevent
insititutions from “trading shares at the propitious moment” and to encourage
them to concentrate on increasing a company’s productivity. Choice A is
incorrect. The suggested requirement that an institution give advance notice of
its intent to sell a significant amount of stock tends to discourage
institutional stockholders from selling stock they believe will decrease in
value since, according to the passage, such an announcement would cause the
stock’s value to plummet. Choice B is also incorrect. The author argues that
insititutional stockholders should be “encouraged to take a more active role in
the operations of the companies in which they invest.” The advance notice
requirement discussed is proposed by the author as a means of fostering, not
discouraging, institutional stockholders’ participation in the operation of the
companies they invest in. Choice D is not the correct answer. The passage does
not discuss ownership of company stock by that company’s employees. Choice E is
also incorrect. The passage states only that institutions should be allowed to
acquire “a dominant shareholding position in a corporation,” but it does not
discuss whether investors should diversity their stock holdings by investing in
different companies.
12. To answer this question, you must use information contained in the
passage to infer something about the “old-style capitalist” referred to. The
best answer is B. According to the lines of the passage, the individual
capitalists of the past, referred to later in the passage as “old-style”
capitalists , could not “sell out for a quick profit” because to do so would
depress the value of their stocks. From this statement it can be inferred that
someone who typifies the “old-style capitalist” would be unlikely to engage in
short-term stock trading. Choice A is incorrect. A comparison between the old-style
capitalists and their modern counterparts is made in the passage, but the
passage does not express an opinion about whether or not the management
techniques used by these capitalists are outdated. Choice C is not the correct
answer. The passage does not discuss the investment policies of the
corporations in which financial institutions invest. Choice D is
also incorrect. According to the passage ,the old-style capitalists were
individual investors, not large institutions. While the passage stats that large
institutions are affected by anti-trust legislation, it says nothing about
whether this legislation affects individual investors. In addition, the passage
does not mention anything about how great a role individual investors now play
in the stock market. Choice E is also incorrect. The passage states that the
old-style capitalists focused on long-term productivity , and hence not on
short-term profitability.
13. This question asks you to infer, from information stated in
the passage, what the author assumes about the companies once controlled by
individual capitalists. The best answer is B. The author asserts that
individual capitalists “had to concentrate on improving the long-term
productivity of their companies.” Then, a bit later, the author identifies
improved long-term profitability as a consequence of improved long-term
productivity. From this it can be inferred that the author assumes that if the
businesses controlled by individual capitalists had improved long-term
productivity, they would also have become more profitable. Choice A is not
correct. The author does not make any direct comparison between the
profitability of past and present corporations. Choice C is not the correct
answer. The first sentence of the passage states that most large corporations
were once dominated by individual capitalists who owned large portions of the
companies’ stock, but the passage does not specify whether many or few people
owned the remainder of each company’s stock. Choice D is incorrect. The passage
states that the individual capitalists who once dominated large corporations
“could not sell out for a quick profits,” but the passage does not indicate
whether or not the other shareholders of these corporations were involved in
short-term trading of their stock. Choice E is not correct. The passage does
not suggest that intuitions owned no stock in most large corporations, only
that individual capitalist owned enough stock to dominate these corporations.
14. This question asks you to infer, from information stated in the
passage, a way in which the role of large institutions as stockholders differs
from that of the “old-style capitalist.” The best answer is B. According to the
passage, the old-style capitalists were able to play a dominant role in the
corporations in which they held stock because they owned enough stock to do so.
The passage also states that large institutions are legally barred from owning
a majority of a company’s stock. From this it can be inferred that large
institutions, because their ability to own stock is limited, do not play as
dominant a role in the corporations of which they are stockholders as did the
old-style capitalists. Choice A is not correct. The passage does not indicate
whether large institutions invest in many companies, few companies, or even
just a single company. Choice C is not the correct answer. The passage does not
mention brokers or any other parties who might influence the investment choices
made by large institutions. Choice D is incorrect. The author notes that an institution’
sale of a large amount of stock would, in fact, decrease the stock’s value.
Choice E is not the correct answer. The passage does not suggest any reason why
large institutions are attracted to the stock of any particular corporations.
15. This question asks you to determine the main purpose served by the
second paragraph of the passage in the context of the passage as a whole. The
best answer is E. The second paragraph is devoted to the author’s
recommendations of certain actions, namely, the adoption of new regulations
concerning the holding and selling of stock by institutional investors. Choice
A is not the correct answer. The author of the passage identifies a
problem-short-term trading done by institutional shareholders-but does so in
the first paragraph, not in the second. Choice B is incorrect. In the second
paragraph, the author recommends new regulations regarding shareholding by
institutions. Although the author mentions some consequences of the suggested
regulations, the author clearly views these consequences as desirable. Choice C
is not correct. The second paragraph contains suggestions about new ways to
regulate shareholding by institutions. Although the author asserts that certain
effects would result from the proposed regulations, these effects are not
explained. Choice D is not correct. The second paragraph proposes measures to
solve the problem presented in the first paragraph, but it simply describes,
rather than evaluate, these proposed solutions.
16. (D) Illustrating a business strategy by means of a case
history.
17. (E) emphasizing the development of methods for the mass
production and distribution of a new technology.
18. (D) VHS prerecorded videotapes were more available than
Beta-format tapes.
19. (D) Sharing control of the marketing of VHS-format
VCR’s.
20. (C) The alignment of an automobile manufacturer with a
petroleum company to ensure the widespread availability of the fuel required by
a new type of engine developed by the manufacturer.
21. (A) It makes a general observation to be exemplified.
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